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If a neuropsychologist, after reviewing anothers evaluation,

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If a neuropsychologist, after reviewing another's evaluation, states that the patient failed to exhibit "constitutional medical problems", what does he mean? Would evidence Narcolepsy qualify as one?


In my opinion, narcolepsy would absolutely qualify as a constitutional medical problem. The only situation in which it wouldn't is if the narcolepsy is thought to be not a true narcolepsy, but a psychosomatic (facticious) narcolepsy. Otherwise, this is a true medical condition with a known pathophysiological etiology.


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