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Ask Dr. D. Love Your Own Question
Dr. D. Love
Dr. D. Love, Doctor
Category: Medical
Satisfied Customers: 17958
Experience:  Family Physician for 10 years; Hospital Medical Director for 10 years.
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I would like to ask my risk of getting HIV virus through

Customer Question

Hi! I would like to ask my risk of getting HIV virus through oral sex and genital to genital rubbing. 2-3 weeks after my contact I have a sever flu-like symptoms. I had rashes on my legs and had a bruise on my knee. Prior to that, 2 weeks before the said contact, the guy had sever flu-like symptoms too and had rashes on his face. I went to a doctor during the time I was sick and my blood was tested. Doctor said it was bacterial infection. Is it possible that he has HIV and transmitted it to me? Thank you!
Submitted: 1 year ago.
Category: Medical
Expert:  Dr. D. Love replied 1 year ago.
Hello from JustAnswer.
The risk of transmission of HIV in this situation would only be related to the oral sex. There is no risk associated with genital to genital rubbing. The average risk of transmission of HIV from a single encounter of unprotected oral sex provided to an untreated HIV positive male is 0.01%, which also means that 99.99% will not get HIV. Of course, if the HIV status of this man is unknown, it is also likely that he does not have HIV, so the overall risk would be even lower. The amount by which it would be lower would depend upon the prevalence of HIV in your community.
Therefore, in the worst case scenario (that he was HIV positive and not receiving any treatment), the risk of a single encounter would be 0.01%. The likelihood that he is HIV positive would depend upon the prevalence of HIV in your community.
If I can provide any further information, please let me know.
Customer: replied 1 year ago.
Thank you Dr. D. Love for your detailed response. I have some follow-up questions, so you are saying that my symptoms are not related to HIV virus due to the very low probability of getting it?
For the genital to genital rubbing, there is zero risk even if there is some bodily fluid involved?
Do you think I need to test or I can simply let it go since the chance is very low.
Thank you very much!
Expert:  Dr. D. Love replied 1 year ago.
It is impossible to say that the symptoms are unrelated solely because the probability is low. It certainly is true that it is vastly more likely that it is not from HIV, but it cannot be said with certainty.
There has never been a case identified that has occurred because of genital to genital rubbing, even though fluids may be present on the external genitalia. If it were possible, then a virgin could acquire HIV, and this simply does not happen.
The current recommendations in the US is that there is no need to test after every encounter that carries this level of risk. Instead, the recommendation is that everyone that is sexually active should be tested regularly, usually annually, although someone with riskier patterns of sexual activity could be tested more often. So, you should be tested regularly, but not specifically because of this encounter.
Customer: replied 1 year ago.
Thanks, ***** ***** Love for your detailed answer. I am a virgin that's why we engaged only in oral sex and genital to genital rubbing. With this one-time encounter, can I say I don't need to test for this? I never had a contact with anyone after this. Thank you.
Expert:  Dr. D. Love replied 1 year ago.
We still consider oral sex to mean that someone is sexually active, even if still a virgin from the perspective of vaginal sex, so the recommendation for regular testing would still apply. But if this has been and remains the only encounter, then testing would not be necessary.
Customer: replied 1 year ago.
Thank you Dr. D. Love. Yes, that was the only encounter up to date. And maybe thay confirms that my symptoms before were caused by bacterial infection which was seen from my blood test.
With that to say, I am not HIV positive. Thank you!
Expert:  Dr. D. Love replied 1 year ago.
You are very welcome.