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I don't understand if it is inactive why would it be causing symptoms. And by inactive does that mean it was already healing?
Does this mean my stomach would have recovered if I had repeated the procedure a couple of months down the track and no evidence of inflammation seen or does it mean if it is chronic it just remains in that inactive inflammed state.
Well there was evidence of POSSIBLE past infection based on the results of gastroscopy but no evidence active infection. I was treated by triple therapy anyway.
So then after the treatment I felt better (even though no active infection which is what confuses me) - does that mean the chronic gastritis would have healed then?
Also I am currently having a recurrence of symptoms but not improving with nexium 40mg (taken for about five weeks already). How likely is it that it is the same gastritis and it was just 'inactive' for two years?
Sorry for the multitude of questions but :
if I had PAST h.pylori infection based on the gastroscopy how could it have gone away without treatment. As there was no active infection found on gastroscopy biopsy. I was treated AFTER the gastroscopy even though no present bacteria was found. This is the confusing thing - could h,pylori have gone away on its own?
, My husband came down with bacterial pneumonia and I am