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Did she sign the contract for deed as the seller?
Does it specifically state that it is only interest that is due each month based on th 3.5% annual interest rate?
And there is no set due date on the contract as to when you have to have it paid by?
Ok, the problem here is that if there is no set date for when the contract will come due and no amount of principle that is due under the contract, that makes this a "demand note". This means that the seller can call the debt in at any time and if you can't pay it off, they could consider it in default and then attempt to foreclose.
So having an actual due date for a final payoff protects the buyer from having a demand note that can be called in at any time.
She is wrong that it is void, it is just "callable". But if you weren't able to borrow money to refinance or pay the debt off, then a judge would likely declare you the equitable owner and order that the property be sold with the proceeds first going towards paying off the seller and any balance going to you.
Unfortunately the part about you moving personal property isn't really relevant to the contract for deed and doesn't affect it legally.