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There almost certainly was not any crime committed. Some 401k plans require spousal consent on a loan, but the failure to obtain said consent would be a contractual issue. The only crime that could have been committed is if spousal consent was required and he forged your name (as that would be forgery). But assuming that he didn't do that, then the loan from the 401k was legal to do, even without your permission. Again, any permission required would be by the 401k plan, not the law.
Now it's possible that he violated a court order in not getting your permission and taking adverse actions against marital property .
(that is, if he took out this loan after you filed for divorce, and did not disclose it, etc...)
This would require that there actually be a court order in place that says that neither of you can do this. And in that instance, failure to abide by the terms of a court order would be "contempt", which is not a crime, but rather a penalty imposed by a court for violating a court order. It doesn't go on a criminal record (although in extreme situations it could put the violator in jail).
So in short, to answer your question, unless he forged your name to get this loan, I don't see how any criminal laws could have been broken.
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