I ask, since one of the ways to force an easement (if you had to go to court an attempt to force and easement) would relate to common ownership
of the land
What you describe sounds like an easements by prior use, which is based on the idea that land owners can intend to create an easement, but forget to include it in the deed.
There are five elements to establish an easement by prior use:
-Common ownership of both properties at one time
-Followed by a severance
-Use occurs before the severance and afterward
But you would have to prove this...you would have the burden to show that there was prior use (during common ownership).
If you could show this? That could get you an easement.
I think you have an uphill battle
There is an easement "by prescription"
This is available in cases where you can show that a person or persons had "adverse possession
"...basically if you can show use over the requisite period of time (20 years) AND that the use was adverse (against the will of the owner) you can claim the right. SO, for example, had you used this for the last 20 years without permission? You would have a great case. But it sounds like you had permission...so this would not apply
Then there is "easement by necessity". But necessity alone is an insufficient claim. Parcels without access to a public way may have an easement of access over adjacent land if crossing that land is absolutely necessary to reach the landlocked parcel and there has been some original intent to provide the lot with access,
This is most common for a tract of land that is "landlocked"...no other way to a highway or public road. I do not think it will apply in the case you describe.
What you describe? I think you have a tough case to try and prove an easement.
I am very sorry to have to bear bad news.
Please let me know if you have more questions...happy to assist if I can