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The motion to reverse the judgment has been granted. The bill came after. I have not paid it yet. The firms lawyer will not continue with the case until it is paid. I told him I should not have to pay $2000 for the firm's mistake. He claims the court had no right to make a judgment based on the fact that he had filed several motions that had not been addressed.(please refer to the dates on the original question) He claims that the court should not have granted the judgment while unresolved motions still exist. Is he right? If so,do I have any recourse against the court? If it is the lawyer/firm's fault, who is responsible, the firm or the first lawyer? What is my recourse there?
Is the lawyer correct in saying that the court does not have the right to grant a judgment while pending motions are in place?
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