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Thanks so much for your reply. I was under the impression that verbal contracts are as good as a written contract? Person A solicited person B to use his reputation for the purpose of selling a product. Person B voiced only one concern to Person A before agreeing to this venture. This one concern was potential damage to his reputation. Person A assured/guaranteed this would not happen.
Your answer makes sense to me in the situation where the damage done to Person B was unforeseen, not specifically discussed.
There was not any plan by Person A and C to defraud person B, but it was everyone's reason to believe that Person C's actions could damage Person B's reputation.
Person A benefited to the tune of $6400 based on his vouching for Person C. I would seem unjust to me for someone to gain substantially based on his vouching for someone for someone else to take on greater risk, but then not be responsible for that greater risk which he is vouching for. Does that make sense or am I missing something.
I don't want to take too much of your time and you have been very helpful thus far. I understand what you are saying and it makes sense. Just fyi Person B sold a different product in this market place and did not benefit one penny from this other venture. It was a market place which was very much dependent on sellers reputations to be successful. Person B's business was going great, Person C's additional product was going great, in fact was outselling Person B's (completely different products). But then when person C got both the reputation of scamming people sales of both dropped to near zero. So end result was Persons A and C used B's reputation to make some quick money and then screwed up. Person B made not a single penny off this additional product and had he not done it would still be doing well. From what you have told me so far it might seem like this could fall through the legal cracks. Where while it is obviously not fair, there is nothing legally to force fairness in this situation. or so it seems.
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