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This law may make sense in some situations but clearly not in others. This law has the effect of empowering police officers to be doctors who can mandate medical treatment even if the subject refuses. Was this the intent of this law? If so, then police officers ARE in effect doctors in Texas who can force medical treatment on anyone they claim or suspect of something before the person has been proven to have anything requiring medical treatment. Police can see anyone walking down the street, decide they have a quota to fill in terms of putting people in jail, and claim that person is crazy or drunk without any proof, then put handcuffs on them, and force them into an emergency room for observation and make the person pay the hospital bill. This is how this law works, correct? Or can this be challenged in any way? Is Texas truly a Police state where the police can do whatever they want and make any person pay whatever bill they so choose, even acting as doctors when they are not? Under the "Implied Consent" law, how does the subject "imply" they have "consented" to medical treatment they verbally refuse? Isn't this "Assumed Consent" with the Officer assuming consent for any person they decide to take prisoner which they should have just cause to prove but as you know can be for just suspecting something based on their opinion or experience in dealing with others, but not necessarily based on the subject's behavior? The police can MAKE THINGS UP and they do all the time in order to put people in jail, particularly when their pay is tied to the number of individuals they incarcerate.
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