there is a property co-owned by beneficiaries of an estate. this property has a contract for purchase that will expire at midnight. The stipulation was drawn up by one owner to have the other owner who was also trustee of estate provide all accounting related to rental of property for previous 3 years prior to contract being signed. the agreement basically stated that all funds would be held in escrow at closing until this documentation was received, the amendment would allow for $10000 each to be disbursed at closing with remainder to remain in escrow until audit was completed
so if i make the change since i initiated the stipulation as plaintiff, initial and sign the amended line in addition to signing the agreement, fax to defendant who also initials and signs the amended part and agreement then it would be legal?
what if original stipulation has never been signed, would you still do it the same way?
and it would still be a legally binding document? thank you
no we are negotiating it, she didn't want to sign original, sorry for any confusion. The changes were made, initialed and signed by both parties as you suggested. I hope that was correct, appreciate your advice.
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