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so they could charge me with possession of stolen property even if i have a bill of sale from the person i bought the bike from signed it back in 09? also the current owner does not even have a bill of sale from me?
what if the authorities are unable to determine if the bike is a theft recovery or even stolen? and can the buyer from me be charged with anything by trying to blackmail me into taking the bike back to get his money back? he asking in text to take it back and sell it to someone else.
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