Yes, she did. She used the services in Jan and Feb. In March, she did not use it, as I told her not to use those services. The $180 was actually for a trainer, and not the gym. The gym membership was a different cost.
So, just to be clear:
Jan: $180 paid for trainer services. Used the trainer services.
Feb: $180 paid for trainer services. Used the trainer services.
Mar: $180 billed for trainer services. Did not use the trainer services.
I cancelled the gym membership separately, but that is really not the real question - it was just easier to relay my initial question as a gym membership. If you just insert the words "gym trainer" for "gym membership" then it is truly correct.
thanks for your reply. The question arises: since the contract is voidable, then is it reasonable to say that the services provided were payable via the contract?
Doing the right thing is something separate, as I do think that people should be compensated for their services, but the contract - the way that it is written - is very difficult to understand.
So, the question still remains: under the contract, do we owe the money?
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