I wanted to give you more information:
a construction contract
states: "Both builder and owner will make best efforts to amicably resolve any disagreements. Upon written notice, eac will be give 2 wqeeks to provide a plan to resolve any issues that might arise. An additional 2 weeks will be given to agree upon a plan. Both must agree on the plan going forward to ensur contractual agreements and plan specifications are carried out."
then we (builder and owner) can not come to agreement on a plan. Owner terminates the builder because we can not agree on next step with an architect to review work that owner alleges is faulty. after cannot agree, owner sends builder termination letter that states, "than your for taking time to meet to discuss possibel resolution, because of your clients failure to gree to meet at the job site in teh presence of our architectual consulatns, the parties are unable to amicaby resolve said matter. Therefor your client is herby terminated."
Question: is this interpretted now that "all the work in the contract has been completed"? neither builder nor homeowner ever took action to say it was not completed. This quesiton arises because both builder and owner want to know if builders CGL policy
will cover occurrences caused by subcontractors as work is complete per the "products-completed operations hazard" definition that work is complete if: "all the work caled for in your contract has been completed".
the second question is the other possibility under product-completed ops hazard, that most work was completed, but we do not know if it "was put to its intended use by any person or organization other than another contractor or subcontractor working on the same project", which further clarifies that work that may need service, maintenance, correction, repari or replacement, but which is otherwise complete will be treated as completed". if for example, owner began to use the basement for personal storage (even though the rest of the house was not finished and another contractor was hired to finish), then is the basement (or even the whole house) considered complete, because homeowner started to use it for storage before or after contract was "terminated". thank you