My name was on the title originally, and like a fool, I allowed him to black mail me into removing my name from the title in order to get ANY of the money from him. That is how I was able to get the initial $9800. My name was not on the mortage.
My questions: Since the money was needed for the home, and now the home is soley his, wouldn't it mean he should be responsible for that loan ?
Also, would it be considered theft by deception since it was less than 6 months AFTER he got this money, we parted ways. It almost seemed he used me for the purpose of getting the finances he needed since he had no other means to get this money. I just want my Mother to be reimbursed for her effort to help him purchase this home.
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