Thank you for your question. Under ordinary circumstances, the answer is "no". California is a community property state and community property is generally divided 50/50, but community property generally includes only property acquired after the date of marriage and before the date of separation, unless acquired by gift, devise, or bequest. There are always exceptions--for example, if the parties have a prenuptial agreement, the property acquired prior to marriage might be split 50/50 by agreement--but normally, one spouse has no right to property acquired prior to marriage by the other.
Does that make sense?
Yes it does thank you,
Very good. Did you have any other questions?
What happen when you fiance has a kid from a prior relationship and has custody of the kid, do you become legally responsible?
Based on being a step-parent, no legal relationship is created between the step-parent and the step-child. Step-parents sometimes adopt, and that creates a legal obligation, but there is ordinarily no legal responsibility.
Everyone is responsible for their own kids--not other people's kids.
Certainly, and please remember to leave a positive rating once you are completely finished since it is the only way I may be compensated for my time. Thanks.
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