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is the law in tx in 1935 the same as it is now-you are doing great so far. i.e, can I rely on this to clear royalty question in 2012, tnx
I am 99% certain that this has been the law since the 1800s. The real estate law in Texas hasn't changed much since Texas became a state. I don't have the statutes from back then but we still rely on case law from the 1800s in reference to real estate matters.Please be sure and ACCEPT on both this one and the other question so I get credit.We work for Positive Ratings, please click on Great Service, Informative and Helpful, or one of the Smile Faces, as this would be appreciated. Please bear in mind I can’t control what the law is and whether it helps you, I can only tell you what it says, and I assume you want truthful information.PLEASE DO NOT use the rating system to ask for more information or in an attempt to tell the website that you didn’t like the substance of the answer as it gives a NEGATIVE rating if you answer either “Helped a Little” or “I Expected More”.
Experience: Began practicing law in 1992