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my husband purchase a house in his name for his ex-wife who has two minor children for him, because her credit was unfavourable. I found out about the house 8 mths to 1yrs after the purchase and my twins were born 3mths ofter the purchase. That was 3 yrs ago. He said the deal was she would take the house out of his name when they refinance but the market crumble on them so that's impossible. The thing is we were married before the purchase but he did not tell her and she did not asked, now she found out and want me to sign a letter stating that i renounce any right i may have to the house. remember it was her down payments and she has been paying for the house and home owner association fee. I really want to help him by signing the letter to assure her i dont want nothing to do with the house and not having her walk away from it now. i do not know her motives what should i do?
State/Country relating to Question: Florida Already Tried: nothing
it appears the wife is just covering her bases here, is the deed in your husband's name?
yes the deed and everything else 345.000. two loan split
then in signing over your interest it does not jeopardize anything for you and your husband's ability to seize the property should she stop paying on the mortgage.
but why would she want me to sign anything, thats between both of them. my question was should i sign it or not and can she use me signature in any legal argument about the house
because she is aware of the fact that by virtue of him purchasing the property while he was married, you have an interest in the home as well since it is considered marital property. You should sign it, and no she cannot use it in any legal argument against your husband's interest in the home.
Attorney
Negotiate, Draft, and Review many complex commercial agreements each year.
thank you