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If Joe borrows money from his friend John (without any promise of high return) to pay debt owed to another friend Sam, it is legal. Right? Does it make any difference whether Joe tells John that the money will be used to pay a debt owed to another person or not? This is not the same as "robbing Peter to pay Paul". Right? Thank you very much!Customer
A party who takes out a loan with no restrictions on the use of the funds may use those funds for any purpose. Yes, this is permissible. Thank you Please click on the ACCEPT button for my answer so that I receive credit for assisting you. You may continue to ask follow-up questions after accepting. If the information is helpful, I would very much appreciate positive feedback. Bonuses are also appreciated. The responses do not create an attorney-client relationship and are informational only.
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Real Estate, Landlord and Tenant, Family Law, Consumer Rights, Nursing Home, Business Law
Does the situation I described have any relevance to the Ponzi Scheme or Robbing Peter to Pay Paul scheme, or any other similar schemes please?
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