This would not make sense unless you paid off your mortgage. When a mortgage is paid off, a discharge of mortgage is filed by the homeowner with the recorder of deeds in order to clear title to the home.
Thid discharge would only make sense if the 2nd lender is filing the discharge so that they can assume the loan from the 1st lender. Are you able to contact the clerk of the court where the action is filed? They will give you more insight as to what might be going on.
I hope this helps. If so, please accept. If I can help further, just let me know.
M. Strisik, Esq.
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