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Exam help for the Following-CPT and Basics; Evaluation and

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Exam help for the Following-CPT and Basics; Evaluation and Management:
1. Where is specific coding information about each section located in the CPT?
A. Introduction
B. Index
C. Procedural section
D. Guidelines
2. Code assignments in the Evaluation and Management section vary according to three factors. Which
factor below is not one of these factors?
A. Pre-existing condition
B. Place of service
C. Type of service
D. Patient status
3. To qualify for a given level of multi-specialty examination, how many content and documentation
requirements should be met?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
4. At times, the five-digit CPT code may not reflect completely the services or procedures provided. In this
situation, you would add a/an
A. HCPCS code.
B. modifier.
C. Level II code.
D. appendix.
5. When a neonate or infant is not considered critically ill but still needs intensive observation and other
intensive care services, the initial and continuing intensive care services codes are
A. 99466–99467.
B. 99468–99476.
C. 99499, unlisted evaluation and management services.
D. 99477–99480.
6. What CPT code is assigned to an ED service that has a detailed history and exam with a moderate level
of MDM?
A. 99291
B. 99283
C. 99284
D. 99220
7. What type of code includes all the words that describe the procedure the code represents?
A. Complete
B. Isolated
C. Developed
D. Stand-alone
8. The _______ is the universal health insurance form for submission of outpatient services.
A. CMS-1400
B. UB-04
C. HCFA-1500
D. CMS-1500
9. J codes in the HCPCS Level II system are used to indicate
A. medications and dosages.
B. durable medical equipment.
C. ambulance services.
D. bandages.
10. When a range of CPT codes are given in the index, this range is indicated by which symbol?
A. Brackets
B. Comma
C. Colon
D. Hyphen
11. Mr. Smith presents to the Emergency Department at the local hospital for chest pain and is seen by the
ED physician on duty. The physician obtains an extended HPI, an extended ROS, and a pertinent PFSH.
What is the level of history?
A. Detailed
B. Expanded problem-focused
C. Comprehensive
D. Problem-focused
12. How often are Category III codes released?
A. Annually
B. As often as necessary
C. Every three years
D. Twice a year
13. An attending physician asks a specialist to see a patient about a specific problem and to advise him
regarding treatment. This situation is called a
A. consultation.
B. referral.
C. transfer of care.
D. confirmatory consultation.
14. The words that follow a code number in the CPT manual are called the
A. procedure/service descriptor.
B. listing order.
C. format descriptor.
D. identified descriptor.
15. Critical care codes are reported based on
A. the three key components—history, exam, MDM.
B. amount of documentation.
C. procedures performed.
D. time.
16. In the index of the CPT manual, which punctuation mark between codes indicates a range of codes is
A. Semicolon
B. Comma
C. Period
D. Hyphen
17. A list of all CPT modifiers used to alter or modify codes may be found in which CPT Appendix?
A. Appendix D
B. Appendix A
C. Appendix E
D. Appendix C
18. The physician must consider multiple diagnoses and management options. There is a moderate amount
of data to be reviewed and the risk of complications or death is moderate. What is the level of MDM?
A. Straightforward
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
19. Modifier -59, distinct procedure service, is used to indicate that
A. a subsequent surgery was planned or staged at the time of the first surgery.
B. a patient was taken back to the operating room for surgical treatment of a complication resulting from a previous surgery.
C. services that are usually bundled into one payment were provided as separate services.
D. a service was repeated.
20. A surgical assistant provides service (an extra set of hands) to the primary surgeon during a surgical
procedure. The assistant surgeon's services are reported using the same codes as the primary surgeon's, but
with modifier
A. 78.
B. 82.
C. 80.
D. 59.
21. What year was CPT first developed and published?
A. 1970
B. 1967
C. 1966
D. 1983
22. When a physician performs a preventive care service, the extent of the exam is determined by the
A. patient's gender.
B. patient's age.
C. patient's gender and age.
D. length of time elapsed since last exam.
23. A procedure or service not found in the CPT manual can be coded as an unlisted procedure if no
category I or II exists to describe the procedure/service provided. Unlisted Service or Procedure codes end
in number
A. 21.
B. 99.
C. 78.
D. 22.
24. Which category number or level codes represent services and procedures that have been approved by
the FDA and have been proven to have clinical effectiveness?
A. Category II
B. Category III
C. Category IV
D. Category I
25. Which of the following types of examination is limited to an affected body area or organ system and
other related organ systems?
A. Problem focused
B. Expanded problem focused
C. Comprehensive
D. Detailed
26. After the first eligible procedure is reimbursed at 100% of Medicare allowance, the remaining (up to
four) procedures are reimbursed at _______ percent.
A. 80
B. 60
C. 75
D. 50
27. Modifier -58, staged or related procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative
period, is used to indicate that
A. a patient was taken back to the operating room for surgical treatment of a complication resulting from a previous surgery.
B. a service was repeated.
C. services that are usually bundled into one payment were provided as separate services.
D. a subsequent surgery was planned at the time of the first surgery.
28. Modifier -51, Multiple Procedure, is used on what type of services?
A. E/M
B. Anesthesia
C. Radiology
D. Surgery
29. The physician performs an extended exam of the affected body areas and related organ systems. What
is the level of the examination?
A. Problem-focused
B. Comprehensive
C. Expanded problem-focused
D. Detailed
30. In which CPT appendix would additions, deletions, and revisions be found?
A. Appendix C
B. Appendix B
C. Appendix D
D. Appendix A
31. Which one of the following items must be included in a general multisystem examination of a
constitutional system?
A. Palpation of lymph nodes
B. Vital signs
C. Inspection of teeth and gums
D. Auscultation of the lungs
End of exam
32. Who publishes CPT?
33. How many main sections are in the CPT manual?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 10
D. 7
34. Which modifier is used by an anesthesiologist to indicate a service for which general anesthesia was
used when normally the anesthesia would have been local or regional?
A. 23
B. 24
C. 26
D. 25
35. Which of the following range of codes is located in the Evaluation and Management section of the CPT
A. 89000–89999
B. 99201–99450
C. 80600–88999
D. 90001–90699

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