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Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points Which

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Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is a component of productivity in the 4-P cycle of continuous improvement? � A. System flexibility B. Organizational learning C. Reduced waste and rework D. Technological advancement Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points __________ is the process of working with and through others to achieve organizational objectives in an efficient and ethical manner. � A. Organizational manner B. Sociology C. Organization theory D. Management Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points If Monica wants to be an effective manager, which of the following skills, according to Wilson's research, should she focus on developing? � A. Vertical communication B. A monocultural orientation C. Develop narrow specialty D. Empowerment and delegation Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points The nature of interpersonal relationships for 21st-century managers should be which of these? � A. Competitive B. Judicial C. Neutral D. Cooperative Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points In today's workplace, __________ are becoming the primary building block of organizations. � A. teams B. suppliers C. contingent employees D. individuals Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is NOT a landmark in the evolution of understanding and managing people? � A. The human relations movement B. The total quality management movement C. The glass ceiling movement D. The contingency approach to management Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is a Theory X assumption about people at work? � A. Work is a natural activity. B. People are capable of self-direction if they are committed to objectives. C. The typical employee can learn to accept and seek responsibility. D. Most people prefer to be directed. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points In a recent survey of managers from 36 countries by the American Management Association, __________ and __________ ranked as the corporate world's top two concerns. � A. quality; productivity B. customer service; quality C. productivity; employee satisfaction D. morale; performance Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points The pioneering work on TQM was done by: � A. Mayo. B. Deming. C. Follett. D. McGregor. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points Which approach calls for using management concepts and techniques in a situationally appropriate manner? � A. One best way approach B. Human relations approach C. Theory X management approach D. Contingency approach Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points The three fundamental layers of organizational culture are: � A. observable artifacts, ethics, and socialization. B. ethics, socialization, and mentoring. C. ethics, observable artifacts, and mentoring. D. observable artifacts, espoused values, and basic underlying assumptions. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points At the more visible level, culture represents: � A. espoused values. B. basic underlying assumptions. C. ethics. D. observable artifacts. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points The values and norms that are exhibited by employees are called: � A. espoused values. B. ethical values. C. socialized values. D. enacted values. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following represents the core of organizational culture? � A. Observable artifacts B. Basic assumptions C. Ethics D. Espoused values Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points According to research, constructive culture is negatively correlated to: � A. job satisfaction. B. intention to stay at the company. C. innovation. D. work avoidance. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points According to research, financial performance was higher among companies that had: � A. culture clashes. B. adaptive and flexible cultures. C. young managers in top management positions. D. established cultures with at least 20 years of experienced management team. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points The process by which employees learn an organization's values, norms, and required behaviors is referred to as: � A. mentoring. B. organizational enculturation. C. organizational socialization. D. espoused value system indoctrination. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points Which phase of socialization requires employees to master important tasks and roles and to adjust to their work group's values and norms? � A. Renewal B. Change and acquisition C. Anticipatory socialization D. Encounter Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points Which phase of socialization requires employees to master important tasks and roles and to adjust to their work group's values and norms? � A. Renewal B. Change and acquisition C. Anticipatory socialization D. Encounter Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points According to Kathy Kram, two general functions of mentoring are: � A. career and psychosocial. B. psychological and social. C. social and physical. D. physiological and cognitive. � � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following represents the first stage of the social information processing model? � A. Selective attention/Comprehension B. Encoding C. Simplification D. Storage and Retention Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points Mental depositories for storing information refer to: � A. schema. B. cognitive categories. C. stereotype. D. attention. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points Long-term memory is made up of three compartments: � A. events, semantic, and person. B. encoding, decoding, and processing. C. individual, group, and organization. D. storage, retention, and response. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points If a student rates all of his professors average on all dimensions of performance regardless of their actual performance, he or she is committing which of these perceptual errors? � A. Self-serving bias B. Central tendency C. Contrast effects D. Halo Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points __________ are suspected or inferred causes of behavior. � A. Causal attributions B. Encoding events C. Personalities D. Diversity activities Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points It is important to remember that __________ relates to other people, __________ relates to other tasks, and __________ relates to time. � A. consensus; consistency; distinctiveness B. distinctiveness; consistency; consensus C. consensus; distinctiveness; consistency D. consistency; consensus; distinctiveness Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points The __________ represents one's tendency to take more personal responsibility for success than for failure. � A. self-serving bias B. glass ceiling C. contrast effects D. fundamental attribution bias Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following exists at the core of diversity? � A. Personality B. Perception C. Attitude D. Internal dimensions Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points __________ belongs to the external dimensions of the diversity wheel. � A. Union affiliation B. Religion C. Sexual orientation D. Ethnicity Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points __________ practices relate to managers' responsibility to treat diverse employees fairly. � A. Recruitment B. Development C. Ethnocentricity D. Accountability Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points A belief about one's own self-worth based on an overall self-evaluation is called: � A. cognitions. B. self-efficacy. C. self-esteem. D. self-concept. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points According to Bandura, which is the most potent source of self-efficacy? � A. Support from others B. Prior experience C. Emotional state D. Behavior models Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points According to field research, there is __________ relationship between high self-monitoring and career success. � A. a positive B. a negative C. a neutral D. an inverse Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points When a person consciously controls the learning process, he/she is engaging in: � A. self-esteem. B. self-management. C. self-efficacy. D. self-monitoring. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points According to the self-management model, three cognitive supports for behavior change, from the person perspective, are: � A. self-contracts, self-talk, and personal goal setting. B. self-observation data, self-reinforcement, and self-talk. C. negative cues, positive cues, and symbolic coding. D. symbolic coding, rehearsal, and self-talk. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points Being relaxed, secure, and unworried are characteristics of which of these Big Five Personality dimensions? � A. Emotional stability B. Locus of control C. Conscientiousness D. Agreeableness Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points Among the Big Five, which dimension had the strongest positive correlation with job performance and training performance? � A. Conscientiousness B. Emotional stability C. Openness to experience D. Agreeableness Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points People with __________ see themselves as masters of their own fate. � A. an external locus of control B. an openness to experience C. an internal locus of control D. emotional stability Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points __________ is a learned predisposition toward a given object. � A. Personality B. Perception C. Self-concept D. Attitude Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points __________ are goal-incongruent. � A. Positive emotions B. Attitudes C. Mental abilities D. Negative emotions � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points __________ are physiological and psychological deficiencies that arouse behavior. � A. Motivations B. Abilities C. Beliefs D. Needs Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is a key managerial implication of Maslow's theory? � A. Adults can be trained to increase their achievement motivation. B. A satisfied need may lose its motivational potential. C. Managers should create challenging task assignments or goals. D. Achievement, affiliation, and power needs can be considered during the selection process for better placement. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points Achievement-motivated people share which of these characteristics? � A. A preference for working on tasks of very high difficulty B. A preference for situations in which performance is due to their effort rather than other factors C. A desire for less feedback on their successes and failures than low achievers D. More concern with discipline and self-respect Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points Achievement-motivated people share which of these characteristics? � A. A preference for working on tasks of very high difficulty B. A preference for situations in which performance is due to their effort rather than other factors C. A desire for less feedback on their successes and failures than low achievers D. More concern with discipline and self-respect Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is also referred to as horizontally loading the job? � A. Job rotation B. Job enlargement C. Mechanistic approach D. Job enrichment Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points __________ refers to the extent to which the job affects the lives of other people within or outside the organization. � A. Task identity B. Skill variety C. Feedback from job D. Task significance Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following models propose that satisfaction is a result of met expectations? � A. Need fulfillment models B. Discrepancies models C. Value attainment models D. Equity model Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points Equity theory is based on __________ theory. � A. goal setting B. need satisfaction C. cognitive dissonance D. motivation-hygiene Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points __________ justice is defined as the perceived fairness of the process and procedures used to make allocation decisions. � A. Distributive B. Procedural C. Interpersonal D. Equitable Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points According to Vroom, expectancy refers to which of the following linkages? � A. Performance � Effort B. Outcome � Performance C. Performance � Outcome D. Effort � Performance Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points A management system that incorporates participation in decision making, goal setting, and objective feedback is: � A. organization justice. B. a distributive system. C. an expectancy system. D. MBO. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points According to Locke's model, goal setting has all of the following motivational mechanisms EXCEPT: � A. goals direct attention. B. goals regulate effort. C. goals increase persistence. D. goals create equity. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points According to research, goal difficulty was __________ related to performance. � A. positively B. negatively C. not D. inversely Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points "SMART" goals stands for: � A. specific, measurable, attainable, results-oriented, and time bound. B. specific, merit-based, acceptable, revealed, and tested. C. systematic, measurable, acceptable, real, and two-dimensional. D. synergistic, moderated, attainable, research-based, and time-tested. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points Generally, people tend to perceive and recall __________ feedback more accurately than they do __________ feedback. � A. positive; negative B. negative; positive C. negative; downward D. downward; upward Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following was voted most effective as an incentive pay plan? � A. Individual incentives B. Group incentives C. Skill- or knowledge-based pay D. Profit sharing Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points Skinner labeled unlearned reflexes or stimulus-response connections as __________ behavior. � A. operant B. respondent C. effective D. normative Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following strengthen behavior? � A. Positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement B. Punishment and extinction C. Positive reinforcement and extinction D. Punishment and negative reinforcement Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points Making behavior occur less often by ignoring or not reinforcing it refers to: � A. punishment. B. positive reinforcement. C. extinction. D. negative reinforcement. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points Random supervisory praise for employees who have been doing a good job is an example of __________ reinforcement. � A. continuous B. fixed-ratio C. fixed-interval D. variable-interval � � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points Formal groups fulfill two basic functions: __________ and __________. � A. organizational; individual B. moral; motivation C. teamwork; productivity D. accomplish tasks; implement complex decisions Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points The group issue of "Can we do the job properly?" is addressed in which stage of the group development process? � A. Adjourning B. Norming C. Forming D. Performing Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following represents the correct sequence of stages in Tuckman's group development model? � A. Storming, Performing, Norming, Forming, and Adjourning B. Norming, Storming, Forming, Adjourning, and Performing C. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning D. Forming, Performing, Norming, Storming, and Adjourning Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points Expected behaviors for a given position are called: � A. attitudes. B. roles. C. values. D. beliefs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points __________ roles keep the group on track while __________ roles keep the group together. � A. Maintenance; task B. Initiator; elaborator C. Task; maintenance D. Compromiser; follower Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points Rejection by other group members refers to: � A. groupthink. B. ostracism. C. cohesiveness. D. cross-functionalism. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points Katzenbach and Smith define a team as "a __________ number of people with __________ skills who are committed to a common purpose and performance goals." � A. large; technical B. small; similar C. large; complementary D. small; complementary Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following represent the three dimensions of trust? � A. Actual trust, perceived trust, and feedback trust B. Perception, personality, and attitude trust C. Overall trust, emotional trust, and reliableness D. Individual, group, and team trust Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points According to research on self-managed teams, self-managed teams have: � A. a significant effect on general attitudes. B. no effect on productivity. C. no significant effect on absenteeism and turnover. D. a negative effect on specifics relating to self-management. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points __________ refers to a cohesive in-group's unwillingness to realistically view alternatives. � A. Cross-functionalism B. Groupthink C. Social loafing D. Ostracism Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points __________ refers to the idea that decision makers are constrained by a variety of factors. � A. Optimizing B. Unaided analytic strategy C. Bounded rationality D. Conceptual decision style Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points The __________ represents a decision maker's tendency to base decisions on information that is readily available in memory. � A. escalation of commitment B. representative heuristics C. nominal group technique D. availability heuristic Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points __________ is(are) acquired from experiences. � A. Tacit knowledge B. Tacit heuristics C. Explicit knowledge D. Explicit heuristics Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points People with a(n) __________ style of decision making are efficient, logical, practical, and systematic in their approach to solving problems. � A. conceptual B. cultural C. analytical D. directive Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points People with which of the following styles have a high tolerance for ambiguity and tend to focus on the people or social aspects of a work situation? � A. Directive B. Behavioral C. Delphi D. Conceptual Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points The tendency to stick to an ineffective course of action when it is unlikely that the bad situation can be reversed refers to: � A. escalation of commitment. B. a directive style. C. satisficing. D. an aided-analytic approach. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points Breakdowns in communication, workplace politics, and organizational inertia that cause organizations to maintain a bad course of action are examples of: � A. psychological and social dominant characteristics. B. organizational determinants. C. project characteristics. D. contextual determinants. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points According to research, __________ has a small but significant effect on job performance and a moderate relationship with __________. � A. participation; turnover rate B. cooperation; job satisfaction C. participation; job satisfaction D. cooperation; equity Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points __________ refers to the process of presenting opinions and gaining agreement to support a decision. � A. The normal group process B. The nominal group technique C. Brainstorming D. Consensus Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points A group process that anonymously generates ideas or judgments from physically dispersed experts is called: � A. brainstorming. B. the Delphi technique. C. logrolling. D. the nominal group technique. � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points A natural tendency for evaluating or judging a sender's message is a __________ barrier. � A. physical B. personal C. process D. semantic Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points __________ competence is a performance-based index of an individual's abilities to effectively use communication behaviors in a given context. � A. Communication B. Feedback C. Delegation D. Validity Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points Research studies indicate that __________ is more effective than __________ in both work-related and consumer contexts. � A. aggressiveness; assertiveness B. nonassertiveness; aggressiveness C. assertiveness; aggressiveness D. nonassertiveness; assertiveness Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points Experts estimate that what percentage of communication is nonverbal? � A. 10-20 percent B. 20-40 percent C. 40-65 percent D. 65-90 percent Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following research findings on nonverbal behavior is true? � A. Men do more touching during conversation than women do. B. A smile conveys the same emotion in different countries. C. Asians are taught to avoid eye contact with superiors and parents in order to show obedience and subservience. D. Experts estimate that about 98% of every conversation is interpreted through body language. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points A person's characteristic speaking pattern refers to their __________ listening style. � A. active B. results C. process D. linguistic Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points A physically dispersed task group is called a __________ team. � A. virtual B. videoconference C. Webbed D. Real-time Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following influence tactics is referred to as a "soft" tactic? � A. Consultation B. Coalition C. Legitimating D. Pressure Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points According to researchers, the three possible outcomes of an influence attempt are: � A. compliance, resistance, and denial. B. friendship, trust, and commitment. C. commitment, compliance, and resistance. D. promotion, transfer, and demotion. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points A belief that people should be paid back for their positive and negative acts is part of the __________ principle identified by Cialdini. � A. reciprocity B. social power C. expert power D. coalition Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points According to research, which basis of power has generally positive effects on work outcomes such as performance, satisfaction, and turnover? � A. Expert and coercive B. Referent and coercive C. Reward and coercive D. Expert and referent Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points In Randolph's Empowerment Model, a manager should create autonomy through structure by: � A. clarifying goals and roles collaboratively. B. centralizing authority. C. establishing a strict hierarchy. D. holding performance information at high levels of the organization. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points Political maneuvering is triggered primarily by: � A. uncertainty. B. greed. C. coalition. D. social power. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points Politically, __________ are people oriented, while __________ are issue oriented. � A. networks; coalitions B. coalitions; individuals C. coalitions; networks D. individuals; coalitions Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points Leadership is a social influence process in which the leader seeks __________ participation of subordinates in an effort to reach organizational goals. � A. total B. the mental C. the voluntary D. the physical Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points What did the researchers from Ohio State Studies conclude? � A. Low structure, high consideration is the best style of leadership. B. High structure, low consideration is the best style of leadership. C. Moderate structure, low consideration is the best style of leadership. D. There is no one best style of leadership. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points University of Michigan Studies researchers identified which two styles of leader behaviors? � A. Employee-centered and job-centered B. Task-motivated and relationship-motivated C. Consideration and initiating structure D. Directive and supportive Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points Fiedler's theory was based on which of these premises? � A. Leaders have one dominant leadership style that is resistant to change. B. Leaders are born, not made. C. Situation cannot influence the leadership style. D. Leaders must be able to modify their style to match the follower readiness. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points Situational variables that cause one style of leadership to be more effective than another are also called: � A. contingency factors. B. readiness factors. C. transactional leadership styles. D. in-group exchanges. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points According to the LMX model, __________ is a partnership characterized by mutual trust, respect, and liking. � A. According to the LMX model, __________ is a partnership characterized by mutual trust, respect, and liking. B. charismatic leadership C. transactional leadership D. servant leadership � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is achieved through formulation and enforcement of policies, rules, and regulations? � A. Division of labor B. Centralized decision making C. A common goal D. Coordination of effort Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points Historically, managers have maintained the integrity of the hierarchy of authority by adhering to: � A. centralized decision making. B. a wide span on control. C. decentralized decision making. D. the unity of command principle. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points The __________ refers to the number of people reporting directly to a given manager. � A. division of labor B. hierarchy of authority C. span of control D. unity of command Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points A relatively self-sufficient entity is called a(n): � A. open system. B. unity of command system. C. closed system. D. command-and-control system. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is a component of a psychosocial subsystem? � A. Attitudes B. Philosophy C. Techniques D. Goal setting Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points Which dimension of organizational effectiveness relates to inputs rather than outputs? � A. Goal accomplishment B. Resource acquisition C. Internal processes D. Strategic constituencies satisfaction Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points Which approach is appropriate when powerful stakeholders can significantly benefit or harm the organization? � A. Goal accomplishment B. Resource acquisition C. Internal processes D. Strategic constituencies Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points __________ organizations are fluid and flexible networks of multitalented people. � A. Mechanistic B. Organic C. Centralized D. Narrow-span Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points According to Burns and Stalker, when environment was relatively stable and certain, the successful organizations tended to be: � A. organic. B. centralized. C. virtual. D. mechanistic. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points Organic organization tends to have __________ communication, where as mechanistic organization tends to have __________ communication. � A. participative; command-and-control B. downward; two-way C. command-and-control; participative D. two-way; participative Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points The next wave of 80 million people entering the workforce over the next 20 years are dubbed the: � A. Generation X. B. Net Generation. C. Generation Y. D. Generation Z. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points The three stages in Lewin's Change model are: � A. unfreezing, change, and refreezing. B. evaluating, changing, and giving feedback. C. planning, affecting, and changing. D. benchmarking, evaluating, and encouraging action. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points Change is stabilized during __________ by helping employees integrate the changed behavior or attitude into their normal way of doing things. � A. unfreezing B. refreezing C. benchmarking D. processing Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points The three main components of a systems model are: � A. freezing, changing, and refreezing. B. planning, initiating, and evaluating. C. analysis, action, and feedback. D. inputs, target elements of change, and outputs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points Change efforts are more complicated and difficult to manage when they are targeted at the __________ level. � A. organization B. group C. individual D. department Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points A set of techniques or tools that are used to implement organizational change is referred to as: � A. benchmarking. B. a strategic plan. C. a mission. D. OD. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points The education and communication strategy for overcoming resistance to change is commonly used in which of these situations? � A. Where there is inaccurate information and analysis B. Where people are resisting because of adjustment problems C. Where someone will clearly lose out in a change D. Where other tactics will not work or are too expensive Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points A(n) __________ organization is one that proactively creates, acquires, and transfers knowledge within itself. � A. organic B. mission-driven C. learning D. benchmarked Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points __________, one of factors that facilitate organizational learning capabilities, reflects accessibility of information and opportunities to observe others. � A. Experimental mind-set B. Climate of openness C. Operational variety D. Concern for measurement Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points Which mode of learning is a methodological approach that is based on the use of organizational routines? � A. Synthetic B. Analytic C. Experimental D. Structural � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points In comparing management accounting with financial accounting, which of the following statements is FALSE? � A. Management accounting is primarily used by managers, employees, and supply chain partners. B. The report format for financial accounting is based on generally accepted accounting principles. C. The purpose of management accounting reports is to provide information for planning, control, performance measurement, and decision making. D. Financial accounting reports are prepared as needed. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points The unit of measurement used in management accounting is: � A. primarily the future dollar. B. monetary at historical and current market values. C. monetary at historical or current market or projected values. D. the measurement unit used by competing companies. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points When preparing a report, it is sometimes necessary to sacrifice accuracy for: � A. timeliness. B. personal feelings. C. profits. D. expectations. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points Primary processes: � A. apply only to a just-in-time environment. B. include information systems and human resources. C. add value to a product or service. D. limit bottlenecks during production. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points Primary processes are comprised of:accounting. � A. marketing, legal, and accounting services. B. research and development, marketing, supply, design, production, distribution, and information systems. C. research and development, design, supply, production, marketing, distribution, and customer service. D. human resources, legal services, information systems, and management Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points An advantage of value chain analysis is that it allows a company to: � A. evaluate ethical conduct. B. focus on its core competencies. C. use the four "w's." D. increase sales to customers. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points The just-in-time philosophy emphasizes: � A. completing products on schedule. B. increasing production. C. finishing all products before starting new ones. D. eliminating waste. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points Activity-based management's primary goal is to reduce: � A. nonvalue-adding costs. B. defects. C. inventory size. D. machine setup time. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points The balanced scorecard: � A. is rarely used. B. produces formal reports. C. only applies to manufacturing companies. D. links the organization's perspectives with stakeholders. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points If a management accountant confides to a relative that his or her company has a confidential plan to merge with another company in the near future, the accountant has: � A. not violated ethical standards. B. violated ethical standards only if the relative owns stock in the company. C. violated ethical standards because the accountant and relative could stand to gain personally from that information. D. not violated ethical standards because the information was relayed to a family member. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points An example of a period cost is: � A. advertising costs. B. indirect materials. C. product design costs. D. direct materials. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is a value-adding cost? � A. Depreciation on personnel department equipment B. Depreciation on factory equipment C. Depreciation on office equipment D. Depreciation on sales department equipment Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points All manufacturing costs incurred and assigned to products that are being produced are classified as: � A. variable costs. B. allocated costs. C. product costs. D. overhead costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is the formula used to compute a product's unit cost? � A. (Direct Materials + Direct Labor) / Number of Units Produced B. (Direct Materials + Direct Labor + Overhead) / Number of Units Produced C. (Direct Labor + Overhead) / Number of Units Produced D. (Indirect Materials + Indirect Labor + Overhead) / Number of Units Produced Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points In a manufacturing environment, direct labor costs initially flow: � A. into the Materials Inventory account. B. directly to Cost of Goods Sold. C. into the Work in Process Inventory account. D. into the Finished Goods Inventory account. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points Cost of goods manufactured is equal to: � A. Direct Materials + Direct Labor + Overhead. B. Beginning Work in Process Inventory + Total Manufacturing Costs - Ending Work in Process Inventory. C. Beginning Work in Process Inventory + Period Costs - Ending Work in Process Inventory. D. Beginning Work in Process Inventory + Product Costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points To reconcile total manufacturing costs with the total cost of goods manufactured during the period: � A. subtract out all period costs from total manufacturing costs to arrive at cost of goods manufactured. B. add beginning and subtract ending finished goods inventory to total manufacturing costs. C. you must know how many goods were sold during the period. D. add beginning and subtract ending work in process inventory to total manufacturing costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points If the estimated cost driver level is overstated, the: predetermined overhead rate will be understated. � A. predetermined overhead rate will be overstated. B. product cost will be overstated. C. cost pool will be understated. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points The activity base that would be most appropriate in a capital-intensive industry is: � A. direct labor dollars. B. direct labor hours. C. sales volume. D. machine hours. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points In an activity-based costing system, the first step in assigning costs is to: � A. accumulate costs for each activity. B. identify the appropriate activities for each function. C. separate nonvalue-adding activities from value-adding activities. D. analyze all nonvalue-adding activities to determine if they are necessary support areas. � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following products probably would be manufactured using a job order costing system? � A. Paper B. Baseball cards C. Computer monitors D. Company business cards Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points Applied overhead exceeds actual overhead when the: � A. Overhead account has a credit balance. B. journal entry to account for the difference involves a debit to Cost of Goods Sold. C. Overhead account has a debit balance. D. company has overspent in the overhead cost area. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points The total of the dollar amounts on the job order cost cards that have not been completed would be equal to the: � A. cost of goods completed. B. balance in the Finished Goods Inventory account. C. Cost of Goods Sold account. D. balance in the Work in Process Inventory account. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points The basic document for keeping track of costs in a job order costing system is a: � A. job order cost card. B. labor time card. C. process cost report. D. materials requisition form. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points When direct materials are issued from inventory to production under a job order costing system, an increase is recorded in: � A. Overhead. B. Work in Process Inventory. C. Materials Inventory. D. Finished Goods Inventory. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points Unit costs for each job are computed by dividing: � A. estimated total costs by planned units to be produced. B. actual costs by actual units sold. C. cost of materials, direct labor, and overhead by number of units produced. D. estimated total costs by actual units produced. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points In cost-plus contracts, the "plus" represents: � A. sales price. B. profit, based on the amount of costs incurred. C. overapplied overhead costs. D. the amount of any cost overruns. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points The balance in the Work in Process Inventory account equals the: � A. balance in the Finished Goods inventory account. B. balance in the Cost of Goods Sold account. C. total of the balances on the job order cost sheets of uncompleted jobs. D. balance in the Overhead account. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following entities probably would use a process costing system? � A. An oil refinery B. A yacht builder C. A custom furniture company D. A custom screw manufacturer Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points Process costing is applicable to production operations that: � A. utilize several processes, departments, or work cells in a series. B. do not assign overhead costs to operations. C. produce large and unique machines. D. are found in only a few industries. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following accurately describes a difference between job order and process costing systems? � A. In job order costing systems, overhead costs are treated as product costs, whereas in process costing systems, overhead costs are treated as period costs. B. Job order costing systems do not need to assign costs to production, whereas process costing systems do. C. In job order costing systems, costs are traced to products, whereas in process costing systems, a FIFO method may be used. D. Since costs are assigned to products in a job order costing system, selling costs are treated as product costs in the job order costing system, whereas they are treated as period costs in process costing systems. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points The reason for combining direct labor and overhead costs together and calling them "conversion costs" is that: � A. they both are direct costs of production. B. the equivalent unit amount for direct materials will be the same as that for direct labor and overhead costs. C. both types of costs usually are incurred uniformly throughout the production process. D. the costs for direct labor and overhead are not accounted for separately. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following statements is true? � A. The Work in Process Inventory account is the focal point of process costing. B. To compute unit costs using the FIFO costing method, total costs of direct materials, direct labor, and overhead that have been accumulated in the Work in Process Inventory account or accounts are divided by the units worked on during the period. C. Equivalent units usually are computed for direct materials and manufacturing overhead combined. D. Labor costs are accounted for differently from manufacturing overhead costs in a process costing system. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points Equivalent units of production usually are determined for: � A. direct materials only. B. direct materials and conversion costs. C. direct materials and direct labor costs only. D. conversion costs only. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points Measures of equivalent production are necessary in process costing because: � A. job order costing procedures cannot be applied. B. unit costs are computed by departments or processes at fixed time intervals. C. perpetual inventories are not employed in process plants. D. production methods are more complex than in job order costing systems. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following applies to process costing but NOT to job order costing? � A. Only one Work in Process Inventory account B. Equivalent production units C. Production of unique items D. Multiple unit job order Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points An advantage of using the average costing method to process costing as opposed to the FIFO costing method is that it: � A. is a little easier to work with. B. is more accurate. C. costs less to utilize. D. requires little knowledge of process costing. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points The computation of equivalent units is exactly the same under the FIFO costing method and the average costing method when there is no: � A. ending work in process inventory. B. ending finished goods inventory. C. beginning finished goods inventory. D. beginning work in process inventory. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points To find cost per equivalent unit of production using the average costing method, the: amount of equivalent units is divided: � A. by costs from the current period. B. into costs from the current period. C. into total costs to be accounted for. D. by total costs to be accounted for. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following statements about a department's costs per equivalent unit calculated using the average costing method compared with a FIFO costing method is true? � A. They could be higher or lower. B. They would be the same. C. They would be lower. D. They would be higher. � This course examines ethics and values in business, investigating the moral responsibilities within the organization, reviewing several approaches to examining ethical issues, and examining justice from the perspectives of procedures, compensation, and retribution. The role of moral leadership in business and an examination of ethical dilemmas created by an expanding global economy are also presented. Credit Hours: 3 This course offers complete coverage of the global marketing environment, including social and cultural considerations, political and regulatory issues, global market segmentation and targeting, imports and exports, pricing decisions, global marketing communications, and global product distribution methods. Credit Hours: 3 View Elective (300-400 Level) offerings. Providing a basic foundation to equip students for future leadership activities in business, government, and society, this course explores the history, philosophy, theories, and concepts of leadership and its relationship to the management of organizational change. It also demonstrates skills needed to promote change, communicate vision, provide a sense of direction, and inspire employees. Credit Hours: 3 This course addresses the new technological environment that marketers are facing by exploring strategic considerations related to technology and technology implementation. The course also examines the basics of the marketing exchange by utilizing the information highway, multimedia techniques, database marketing, interactive telecommunications, and other e-business techniques. Credit Hours: 3 BZ400 - Strategic Information Technology* Students explore the major current issues and challenges facing the design, implementation and use of information technology systems in organizations. Credit Hours: 3 � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points Customer relations are usually part of: � A. the supply chain. B. the value chain. C. both the value chain and the supply chain. D. neither the value chain nor the supply chain. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following statements is true? � A. A company's value chain is not part of its supply chain. B. A manufacturer's supply chain typically includes research and development and customer service. C. A company's supply chain includes the value chains of its suppliers. D. Your supplier's suppliers are part of your value chain. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points Process value analysis (PVA) identifies all activities of a production and/or assembly operation for the purpose of: � A. preparing budgets based on activity centers. B. determining the value of the process. C. replacing cost drivers used in cost assignment analyses with activities. D. relating cost assignment to the activities that caused the cost to be incurred. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points A nonvalue-adding activity is defined as a(n): � A. administrative or support activity that adds overhead cost to the product and increases its market value. B. activity that adds cost to a product but does not increase its market value. C. activity that adds no cost to the product but increases its market value. D. wasteful but unavoidable production activity. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points Product unit costs computed using activity-based costing compared to product unit costs computed using a traditional costing approach will: � A. sometimes be the same. B. always be higher. C. always be the same. D. always be lower. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points A framework for classifying value-adding and nonvalue-adding activities according to the level at which their costs are incurred is called a: � A. bill of activities. B. full product cost. C. value chain. D. cost hierarchy. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points Which one of the four levels of the cost hierarchy would be used by a dress manufacturer that uses activity-based management for sewing seams on a garment? � A. Unit-level activity B. Batch-level activity C. Product-level activity D. Facility-level activity Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points The initial step in achieving the efficiency of a just-in-time system is to: � A. redesign the plant layout. B. replace laborers with machines. C. stop ordering materials for inventory. D. identify products that are not profitable. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points Backflush costing aims at reducing waste in the: � A. accounting system. B. cost of goods sold. C. storage of raw materials. D. production process. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points The typical relationship between variable costs and volume may be described best as which of the following? � A. Costs increase in an erratic, unpredictable fashion with changes in volume. B. Costs stay fairly constant with changes in volume. C. Costs increase with changes in volume up to a certain point and then remain constant. D. Costs increase in direct proportion to increases in volume. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points The variable cost per unit __________ as the number of sales increase. � A. decreases B. changes C. remains constant D. increases Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points The level of operating capacity that is needed to meet expected sales demand is called: � A. practical capacity. B. normal capacity. C. ideal capacity. D. excess capacity. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points Theoretical capacity reduced by normal and anticipated work stoppages is called: � A. practical capacity. B. normal capacity. C. ideal capacity. D. excess capacity. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points Theoretical capacity refers to: � A. extra machinery and equipment kept on hand. B. the maximum productive output possible. C. an output level that allows for normal work stoppages. D. the operating capacity that will meet expected sales demand. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points The high-low method: � A. calculates variable costs per unit by dividing the difference in the high and low activity levels by the high and low costs. B. assumes that the fixed portion of the mixed cost is the lowest monthly cost incurred during the period under consideration. C. allows differentiation between fixed and variable costs when dealing with mixed costs. D. combines the fixed and variable portions of a cost to determine the total cost. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points The equation for finding the breakeven point may be written as: � A. S - VC - FC = 0. B. VC - FC = S. C. S + FC = VC. D. S + VC + FC = 0. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points The breakeven point is: � A. where fixed and variable costs reach the upper level of the relevant range. B. the level of activity where all fixed costs are recovered. C. where total revenue equals total costs. D. where fixed costs meet variable costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points The equation that will provide the breakeven point in units (SP = selling price) is: � A. BE units = (SP - VC) � FC per unit. B. VC per unit + FC = SP per unit x BE units. C. BE units = FC � CM per unit. D. SP per unit � VC per unit = FC � BE units. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points Contribution margin equals sales minus: � A. cost of goods sold. B. total costs. C. fixed costs. D. variable costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points For every unit that a company produces and sells above the breakeven point, its profitability is improved (ignoring taxes) by the unit's: � A. gross margin. B. selling price minus fixed cost. C. variable cost. D. contribution margin. � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points A purpose of standard costing is to: � A. control costs. B. allocate costs more accurately. C. replace subjective decision making. D. compute the breakeven point. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points A(n) __________ cost is synonymous with the product cost calculated in a conventional standard cost accounting system. � A. fixed B. direct C. joint D. expected Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points An expression of the hourly labor pay cost per function or job classification that is expected to exist during the next accounting period is the definition of a: � A. direct labor time standard. B. direct materials quantity standard. C. direct labor rate standard. D. variable overhead rate. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points Multiplying the standard price of direct materials by the standard quantity for direct materials yields: � A. the direct materials price variance. B. the direct materials quantity variance. C. the standard direct materials cost. D. nothing; the two components should be added together. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following provides an explanation of why the variable overhead rate is separated from the fixed overhead rate in standard costing? � A. There is no justifiable reason; their separation is merely to simplify entries. B. Both calculations divide by the same direct labor hours, but the numerator is different for each calculation. C. The variable overhead rate is calculated using actual direct labor hours, whereas the fixed overhead rate is calculated using normal capacity direct labor hours. D. Different application bases are generally appropriate. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points The primary difference between a fixed (static) budget and a flexible budget is that a fixed budget: � A. cannot be changed after the period begins, whereas a flexible budget can be changed after the period begins. B. is concerned only with future acquisitions of fixed assets, whereas a flexible budget is concerned with expenses that vary with sales. C. is a plan for a single level of production, whereas a flexible budget is several plans (one for each of several production levels). D. includes only fixed costs, whereas a flexible budget includes only variable costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points The formula used to compute budgeted total cost at any level of activity is presented in the: � A. flexible budget. B. performance report. C. static budget. D. cash flow forecast. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points The difference between the standard quantity allowed and the actual quantity used multiplied by standard price is the equation for computing the: � A. direct labor efficiency variance. B. direct materials price variance. C. direct labor rate variance. D. direct materials quantity variance. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points The overhead variance is equal to the difference between: � A. fixed overhead costs and flexible overhead costs. B. estimated overhead rate and applied overhead rate. C. actual overhead costs and variable overhead costs. D. actual overhead costs and standard overhead costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points A favorable fixed overhead volume variance for a manufacturing company could indicate: � A. the creation of excess inventory. B. the actual overhead exceeded the budgeted overhead. C. sales exceeded production. D. variable overhead costs were less than fixed overhead costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points Irrelevant costs include costs that are: � A. different among alternatives. B. avoidable. C. sunk. D. opportunity costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points The difference in total costs between two alternatives is referred to as the: � A. direct cost. B. incremental cost. C. sunk cost. D. opportunity cost. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points The purpose of incremental analysis is to find the alternative: � A. that contributes the most to operating income. B. that brings in the most revenue. C. with the lowest fixed costs. D. with the fewest relevant costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points In a special-order decision, which of the following costs would normally be irrelevant? � A. Packaging costs B. Direct labor C. Variable overhead D. Fixed selling expenses Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points Avoidable costs are important for: � A. product mix decisions. B. sell or process-further decisions. C. decisions to eliminate unprofitable segments. D. pricing decisions for special orders. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points Direct costs include: � A. all product costs. B. variable product costs. C. some identifiable fixed costs and variable product costs. D. some identifiable fixed costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points As a general rule, a segment should not be eliminated if: � A. the company is profitable. B. its direct fixed costs exceed its contribution margin. C. the segment's fixed costs equal its variable costs. D. its contribution margin exceeds direct fixed costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points The point at which products are separated in a joint production process is the: � A. split-off point. B. joint product point. C. separation point. D. breakeven point. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points Relevant costs in a sell or process-further decision include: � A. costs of additional processing. B. both additional revenues and additional costs. C. revenues after additional processing. D. joint product costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points The objective of the sell or process-further decision is to: � A. maximize production. B. maximize joint costs. C. minimize processing. D. maximize operating income. � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points The pricing objective of maximizing profits: � A. has not been affected by other, more socially focused concerns. B. is to be implemented under any and all circumstances. C. has not always been considered the underlying objective of any pricing policy. D. must be considered when determining the price needed to increase market share. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points To stay in business, a company must have a selling price that is: � A. acceptable to the customer. B. able to recover the variable costs of production. C. the highest in the marketplace. D. equal to or lower than the company's costs per unit. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points An internal issue to be considered when setting a price is: � A. whether the process is labor-intensive or automated. B. the customer's preferences for quality versus price. C. current prices of competing products or services. D. the life of the product or service. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points An external issue to be considered when setting a price is: � A. the variable costs of the product or service. B. the desired rate of return. C. the quality of materials and labor. D. the number of competing products or services. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points Fixed costs that change for activity outside the relevant range would include: � A. supervision costs. B. electricity costs. C. production supplies costs. D. raw materials costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points When gross margin pricing is used, the markup percentage includes: � A. desired profits plus total selling, general, and administrative expenses. B. only the desired profit factor. C. total costs and expenses. D. desired profits plus total fixed production costs plus total selling, general, and administrative expenses. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points The return on assets pricing method: � A. has very little appeal and support. B. has a primary objective of earning a minimum rate of return on assets. C. is a crude approach to pricing and should be used as a last resort. D. replaces the desired rate of return used in cost-based pricing methods with a desired profit objective. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points The pricing method that establishes selling prices based on a stipulated rate above total production costs is: return on assets pricing. � A. target cost pricing. B. gross margin pricing. C. time and materials pricing. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points A major advantage of the target costing approach to pricing is that target costing: � A. allows a company to analyze the potential profit of a product before spending money to produce the product. B. is not dependent on customers' quality versus price decisions. C. identifies unproductive assets. D. anticipates the product's profitability midway through its life cycle. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points Use of market transfer prices: is the only acceptable approach in a free enterprise economy. � A. usually does not cause the selling division to ignore negotiating attempts by the buying division. B. may cause an internal shortage of materials. C. usually does not work against the operating objectives of the company as a whole. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points The variables to be considered in the capital investment decision are: � A. expected life, estimated cash flow, and investment cost. B. expected life, estimated cost, and projected capital budget. C. estimated cash flow, investment cost, and corporate objectives. D. economic conditions, economic policies, and corporate objectives. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points Another term for the minimum rate of return is the: � A. payback rate. B. discounted rate. C. capital rate. D. hurdle rate. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points The after-tax amount is used for which of the following components of the cost of capital? � A. Cost of debt B. Cost of common stock C. Cost of preferred stock D. Cost of retained earnings Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points Capital investment proposals should be ranked in decreasing order of: � A. length in years. B. dollar amount required. C. residual value expected. D. rate of return. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following items is irrelevant to capital investment analysis? � A. Investment cost B. Residual value C. Carrying value D. Net cash flows Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points The carrying value of a fixed asset is equal to its: � A. current disposal value. B. current replacement cost. C. original cost. D. undepreciated balance. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following items can be described as a noncash expense? � A. Wages B. Advertising C. Income taxes D. Depreciation Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points The time value of money concept is given consideration in long-range investment decisions by: � A. assuming equal annual cash flow patterns. B. assigning greater value to more immediate cash flows. C. weighting cash flows with subjective probabilities. D. investing only in short-term projects. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points The net present value method of evaluating proposed investments: � A. discounts cash flows at the minimum rate of return. B. ignores cash flows beyond the payback period. C. applies only to mutually exclusive investment proposals. D. measures a project's time-adjusted rate of return. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points The payback period is defined as the amount of time in years for the sum of: � A. future net incomes to equal the original investment. B. net future cash inflows to equal the original investment. C. net present value of future cash inflows to equal the original investment. D. net future cash outflows to equal the original investment. � Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points How does an ERP system differ from an MIS? � A. The ERP system informally links the different areas of management for specific purposes. B. There is no difference. C. The ERP system combines all areas of management into one centralized data warehouse. D. The ERP system can be used only in a service business. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points Quality costs of conformance and costs of nonconformance are related to each other: � A. rarely. B. directly. C. indirectly. D. inversely. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points The overall objective of controlling the costs of quality is to eliminate: � A. appraisal costs. B. costs of nonconformance. C. costs of conformance. D. the costs of quality. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points Some companies have moved to JIT without changing the substance of their accounting systems. Relying on the former accounting system may present problems for management because: � A. traditional accounting systems are designed to track items (labor efficiency, purchase price, overhead absorption) that are no longer primary concerns of management. B. control of cost drivers will be lost. C. managers do not understand the new manufacturing environment. D. traditional accounting systems discourage the creation of large inventories that are necessary to ensure uninterrupted production runs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points With respect to product quality: � A. quality must be "traded off" against cost considerations. B. the best quality control systems rely on inspection points to ensure product quality. C. accountants do not need to be concerned with quality control reporting, as it is entirely nonfinancial in nature. D. quality output starts with correct product design. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points CAD is: � A. a cost allocating decision. B. computer aided downtime. C. a computer-based engineering system. D. an organizational environment. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following specific measures of vendor quality would be used when evaluating vendors that supply a company with direct materials? � A. Defect-free material as a percentage of total materials received B. Number of customer complaints C. Time it takes to make a product D. All would be considered to assess vendor quality of direct materials Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points The term given to the act of a company comparing its processes to similar processes in a successful company is called: � A. process mapping. B. TQM. C. benchmarking. D. return on quality. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points The award given to companies that achieve distinctive results in implementing total quality control is the: � A. ISO. B. Malcolm Baldrige Quality Award. C. Deming Application Prize. D. Kaizen Prize. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points A producing center is another term for a(n): � A. service center. B. cost center. C. revenue center. D. activity center. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points A discretionary cost center is another term for a(n): � A. service center. B. activity center. C. cost center. D. revenue center. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points The allocation base used to assign service center costs is called a: � A. service base. B. cost driver. C. revenue driver. D. revenue base. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points An organization that does not require precise measurements of the use of services probably would allocate its service center costs by: � A. using some form of the step method. B. applying the direct method. C. each revenue center's ability to absorb the cost. D. the actual usage of the service by the revenue centers. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is a problem inherent in charging revenue centers for usage of service centers? � A. It is difficult to determine the amount that each revenue center should be charged for services. B. The usage among the revenue centers could vary widely. C. A particular revenue center may not use any of the support of a specific service center. D. The revenue centers could choose to use services from outside the company instead. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points Another name for the simultaneous equation method is the: � A. reciprocal method. B. two-step method. C. step down method. D. indirect method. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following methods allocates each service center's costs to all centers supported? � A. Simultaneous equation method B. Step method C. Direct method D. None of the above Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points Activity-based overhead rates differ from departmental overhead rates in that: � A. they are not used to help determine the full cost of a product or service. B. they do not include any costs allocated from service centers in their calculation. C. there are more than one per department. D. they lessen a manager's ability to control costs. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points The cost allocation method that assigns joint costs to products based on their relative market value at the split-off point is the: � A. simultaneous equation method. B. relative sales value method. C. net realizable value method. D. physical units method. Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points Joint costs are: � A. incurred prior to the separation of joint products. B. incurred after separation of joint products. C. incurred prior and after separation of joint products. D. None of the above Reset Selection Mark for Review What's This? Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points Which of the following is an example of a by-product? � A. Sawdust from a lumber mill used to make fireplace logs B. BroXXXXX XXXXXies used in cookies-and-cream ice cream C. Pineapple skins from processing pineapple used for animal feed D. None of the above

Submitted: 1 year ago.
Category: Homework
Expert:  FiveStarLaw replied 1 year ago.
Thank you for your questions. I am happy to assist you but I am unable to read the questions as formatted. Could you please upload to a third-party file sharing site – for example: www.mediafire.com
Customer: replied 1 year ago.
Expert:  FiveStarLaw replied 1 year ago.

Hi Carlos, There appear to be 109 pages of questions. That is too many for me to answer for one question page. I will opt out so that another expert can assist you or I can answer half of the questions here and you can open a new page for the other half.

Customer: replied 1 year ago.

Can you do all of them for more than an extra bonus. Like $170

Expert:  FiveStarLaw replied 1 year ago.
Yes but my concern is that I have not worked with you previously and this work will take me several hours. When do you need the answers
Customer: replied 1 year ago.

as my concern how many hours would it possibly take you?

Expert:  FiveStarLaw replied 1 year ago.
2 hours
Customer: replied 1 year ago.

awesome!

Expert:  FiveStarLaw replied 1 year ago.
Let me give you the answers to the first assignment to be certain that you like my work:
1 C. Reduced waste and rework
2 D. Management
3 D. Empowerment and delegation
4 D. Cooperative
5 A. teams
6 D. The contingency approach to management
7 D. Most people prefer to be directed.
8 B. customer service; quality ?
9 B. Deming.
10 D. Contingency approach
11 D. observable artifacts, espoused values, and basic underlying assumptions
12 D. observable artifacts
13 D. enacted values
14 B. Basic assumptions
15 D. work avoidance
16 B. adaptive and flexible cultures.
17 C. organizational socialization
18 B. Change and acquisition
19 B. Change and acquisition
20 D. physiological and cognitive

Expert:  FiveStarLaw replied 1 year ago.

Here are my answers for comparison with your own:

 

Expert:  FiveStarLaw replied 1 year ago.
Here are my answers for comparison with your own:

http://www.mediafire.com/view/?deu9783r3px6c09

Please accept/rate and bonus as agreed. I am available to continue working through all of your courses
Customer: replied 1 year ago.

I already submitted them but I will receive the scores on wednesday morning at the lates. Would you be able to upload the next 2 assignments so I can submit them now??

Expert:  FiveStarLaw replied 1 year ago.

That's unusual – I have taken these assignments previously and had them graded immediately. If you can please accept and bonus now, I will do the two additional assignments. Please remember that I am a real person and not a computer – This is my only source of income

Customer: replied 1 year ago.

I am adding the bonus when you add the last to assignments, we had a deal.

Expert:  FiveStarLaw replied 1 year ago.
Fine but please leave a positive rating now. After I post the other assignments you can add the bonus
Customer: replied 1 year ago.

Add the assignments, I will proceed with the rating and bonus. Promise I will leave a excellent rating and a good bonus.

Expert:  FiveStarLaw replied 1 year ago.
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