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Chris M., M.S.W. Social Work
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Need help on Open source psychology exam

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Open-Source Exam

1. While studying in the library, Kayleigh became very hungry and went to a vending machine which was empty, and to the cafeteria which was closed. So she drove home and cooked herself a meal and ate it, satisfying her hunger. This food-seeking behavior was initiated by a bodily need with her search being sustained and directed to various food sources until her need was met. This illustrates
a. motivation
b. behavioral dieting.
c. the opponent process theory
d. the Yerkes-Dodson law

2. If your body is dehydrated, but you’re not thirsty, we would say that you have
a. a drive but not a need
b. a need but not a drive
c. both a drive and a need
d. neither one of them

3. you’ve just eaten a large meal and feel extremely full. Then, the waiter tells you about their signature dessert. “Death by Chocolate.” Your ordering of this dessert is best explained by
a. drive reduction
b. an internal need
c. an incentive value
d. homeostasis

4. Thomas Edison, who patented over 1000 inventions, was interested in exploring new ideas and ways of doing things. His insatiable curiosity would be called a
a. stimulus motive
b. primary motive
c. learned motive
d. survival motive

5. On the basis of religious faith, a starving Hindu refuses to eat beef that has been made available to him. In this case, it might be said that a has overpowered a .
a. learned motive; primary motive
b. stimulus motive; biological need
c. primary motive; learned motive
d. basic need; stimulus motive

6. About 10 minutes after Janice starts her 30-minute walk on the treadmill, she begins to perspire, which helps to cool her off. Her body’s tendency to maintain normal body temperature is a function of
a. instinct
b. drive
c. social learning
d. homoeostasis

7. Martha is flying east from Chicago to Stockholm. What advice would you give her to help her prevent “jet lag”?
a. arrange to fly late in the day since she’s flying east.
b. begin to pre-adapt her sleep-and-waking cycle to Stockholm
c. when she arrives in Stockholm, she needs to stay indoors
until her body adapts.
d. all of these

8. Clarence suffered a stroke that destroyed his lateral hypothalamus. This damage is likely to cause
a. refuse to eat
b. never feel full
c. overeat
d. experience massive weight gain without overeating.

9. regarding the set point, fat cells and obesity, which of the following is FALSE?
a. Roughly 65% of adults in the USA are overweight.
b. your set point is the weight you maintain when you are
making no effort to gain or loose weight.
c. when your body goes below its set point, you’ll feel hungry
most of the time.
d. Leptin is released from fat cells and tells your brain that you
need to eat more.

10. 18-year-old Marie has gained weight since starting college because she tends to eat with her friends at “all-you-can-eat” buffets near campus. Her weight gain is most likely due in this case to
a. external eating cues
b. depression
c. her set point
d. her lowered basal metabolism

11. regarding factors that influence eating, which of the following is/are TRUE?
a. Tastes for “normal” foods don’t vary all that much.
b. if you are well fed, Leptin dulls the tongue’s sensitivity to
seer tastes.
c. people with weight problems are less likely to eat when they
are angry or anxious than when they are sad or depressed.
d. all of these are true.

12. Susan has been undergoing chemotherapy. Because the drugs used in this treatment cause nausea, susan may experience
a. bulimia nervous
b. homoeostasis
c. a taste aversion
d. anorexia nervous

13. Cultural values influence hunger primarily by affecting
a. how wide a selection of foods are available in the
b. the set point of a person’s body fat.
c. the incentive value of various foods
d. our innate sense of what constitutes good food.

14. all of the following are means of achieving a successful weight loss program using behavioral dieting EXCEPT
a. learning to weaken personal eating cues
b. using biofeedback techniques to break habitual eating
c. counting calories
d. exercise

15. Amber is slightly above her normal weight. She feels that she has no control over her eating and often consumes large quantities of food in only an hour or so. Amber then either makes herself vomit or resorts to excessive exercise or fasting to prevent weight gain. From these observations, it appears that amber is suffering from
a. anorexia nervosa
b. bulimia nervosa
c. the taste aversion paradox
d. the behavioral dieting syndrome

16. regarding eating disorders, which of the following is FALSE?
a. people engaged in sports, such as wrestling, pole vaulting,
high jumping, and cycling, are less likely to develop eating
b. the current popularity of fitness and exercise has contributed
to the rise in eating disorders.
c. Men and women who suffer from eating disorders have
distorted views in themselves and low self-esteem.
d. Most people suffering from eating disorders will not seek
help on their own, especially men.

17. treatment for anorexia nervosa and bulimia include
a. giving drugs to people with anorexia to relieve the obsessive
fears of gaining weight.
b. behavioral counselling for people with bulimia that involves self-monitoring of food intake
c. cognitive-behavioral therapy to change thinking patterns.
d. all of these

18. you have been doing lawn work and trimming hedges in the hot summer sun,and have been perspiring profusely. You will have an thirst that will best be quenched by drinking .
a. extracellular; a slightly salty liquid
b. extracellular; plain water
c. intracellular; a slightly salty liquid
d. intracellular; plain water

19. thirst and sleepiness are , while pain avoidance is .
a. episodic, cyclical
b. cyclical; episodic
c. unaffected by external incentives; affected by external
d. affected by early experiences and learning; unaffected by
early experiences and learning.

20. pain avoidance is unusual among the primary drives because it is
a. cyclic rather than episodic
b. unaffected by attitudes and learning
c. characterized by avoidance rather than goal-seeking
d. all of these.

Submitted: 2 years ago.
Category: Homework
Expert:  Chris M. replied 2 years ago.
Here are the answers for comparison with your own.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. A
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. A
11. B
12. C
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. C

Hope this helps!
Customer: replied 2 years ago.

21. LaTara has a high pain tolerance, while Janae has a low pain tolerance. The difference is most likely due to
a. the type of pain each is enduring
b. differences in their body chemistry
c. the attitudes they learned by observing role models
d. whether the pain avoidance is episodic or cyclic

22. the human sex drive
a. is not necessary for individual survival, but is necessary for
the survival of the human species.
b. refers to one’s sexual orientation and the type of sexual
behaviors one engages in.
c. is cyclic and homoeostatic
d. shows a clear relationship to deprivation, that is, the amount
of time that has passed since the drive was last satisfied.

23. according to arousal theory, which of the following is FALSE?
a. an individual becomes uncomfortable when arousal is too
low or too high.
b. the right mix of activities prevents boredom and
c. stimulus drives are non-homeostatic.
d. most adults vary their activities to keep arousal at a
comfortable level of activation.

24. Jan and her husband Dean are going on a vacation to the beach. Jan wants to lie on the beach and read a good book, while Dean wants to scuba dive and surf. Jan appears to be , while Dean appears to be .
a. self-actualized; fixated
b. fixated; self-actualized
c. a high sensation seeker; a low sensation seeker
d. a low sensation seeker; a high sensation seeker

25. On the day of the test, eddie was very sleepy, while Petra was in a state of panic about the test. According to the arousal theory,
a. both eddie and petra will probably perform well on the test,
since test taking is not influenced by arousal levels.
b. both eddie and petra will probably perform well since they
are both functioning at their optimal arousal levels.
c. both eddie and petra will probably perform poorly on the test,
because his arousal is too low and hers is too high.
d. petra will probably perform well since she is focused, while
Eddie will probably perform poorly due to a low arousal level.

26. Test anxiety is a combination of
a. low arousal level and lack of focus.
b. overpreparation and literal interpretation.
c. high arousal level and excessive worry.
d. over preparation and excessive worry.

27. You have a friend who freezes on tests. What is the most direct remedy you could recommend?
a. Take deep breaths and practice progressive muscle
b. over prepare by studying long before the test date.
c. rehearse your reactions to a failure on this test.
d. talk to a counsellor or a trusted friend.

28. Regarding motives, which of the following is FALSE?
a. the behavior of outstanding artists, scientists, and educators
is best understood in terms of learned needs, particularly the
need for achievement.
b. Success, approval, grades, and dominance are considered
stimulus motives.
c. we acquire social motives through socialization and cultural
d. the need for achievement differs from the need for power.

29. Abby is a college student who enjoys taking challenging classes so that she can learn skills that will be helpful to her in the future. Although she has high A’s in all of her courses, she strives to do the best she can on every test and assignment because it is important to her to meet her own standards of excellence. McClellard would say that Abby has a high need for
a. achievement
b. power
c. extrinsic motivation
d. all of these

30. persons with a high need for achievement tend to
a. be moderate risk takers
b. avoid easy goals because they offer no sense of satisfaction.
c. avoid long shots because there is either no hope of success
or the “winning” will be due to luck rather than skill.
d. all of these.

31. people can improve everyday motivation by increasing their , which involves the belief that they can successfully carry out an activity or reach a goal.
a. self-actualization
b. optimal arousal
c. self-confidence
d. sense of power

32. Although she has grown up in an upper middle-class family and lived in small reasonably safe town, Patti has always felt that she was different from her siblings and from the other teenagers at school. Due to this feeling of “not fitting in,” Patti joined a cult. Abraham Maslow would say that Patti joined the cult because she was trying to fulfil which basic need?
a. love and belonging need
b. security needs
c. self-esteem needs
d. self-actualization

33. When Maslow designated some needs as “basic needs,” he meant that they were
a. less important to individual survival.
b. less likely to lead to activities considered admirable in
human cultures.
c. more likely to direct human activity until they were met.
d. more likely to be unconscious than conscious.

34. Maslow estimated that few people in our society are primarily motivated by needs for with most of us being .
a. love and belonging; more concerned with esteem or security
b. esteem and self-esteem; nor concerned with love and
belonging needs.
c. self-actualization; more concerned with esteem, love, or
security needs.
d. safety and security; more concerned with self-actualization.

35. an employment recruiter who offers challenges and a chance to explore and earn rather than high pay is seeking employees who are
a. extrinsically motivated
b. intrinsically motivated
c. older and more traditional
d. lower skilled

36. Regarding emotions, which of the following is/are TRUE?
a. emotions help us develop positive emotional bonds of love,
caring, and friendship.
b. emotions are linked to many basic adaptive behaviors that
aid survival.
c. emotions can have negative effects, such as stage freight or
“choking up” in sports performances.
d. all of these are true, regarding emotions.

37. you are about to make a speech. Your hands tremble, your posture tenses, and your voice has a slight quiver as you begin. These outward signs represent which component of emotion?
a. emotional feelings
b. emotional expressions
c. physiological changes
d. emotional behavioral symptoms

38. concerning Robert Plutchik’s theory of primary emotions, which of the following is False?
a. primary emotions can be mixed to yield a third, more
complex emotion.
b. jealousy is a mixture of love, anger, and fear.
c. Awe, love, aggression, and guilt are four of the primary
d. each primary emotion can vary in intensity.

39. concerning moods, which of the following is FALSE?
a. moods are the most extreme forms of emotions.
b. moods tend to be generally lower for most weekdays than
they are on weekends.
c. it is possible to have positive and negative emotions at the
same time.
d. moods affect day-to-day behavior by preparing us to act in
certain ways.

40. you are feeling sad and depressed. Research into brain activity would indicate that processing is primarily occurring in
a. the mid brain
b. the left hemisphere
c. the right hemisphere
d. both hemispheres.

Expert:  Chris M. replied 2 years ago.
Here are the answers to this second set of questions for comparison with your own.

21. C
22. A
23 C
24. D
25. C
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. D
31. C
32. A
33. C
34. C
35. B
36. D
37. C
38. C
39. A
40. C

Hope this helps!
Customer: replied 2 years ago.

41. The receives sensory information very directly and quickly, bypassing the cortex and allowing persons to respond to potential danger before they really know what’s happening.
a. midbrain
b. left hemisphere
c. right hemisphere
d. amygdala

42. you have just narrowly missed hitting a car that pulled out in front of you. Your heart is pounding, your throat is dry, your hands are trembling, and you are sweating. Your reactions
a. were caused by the somatic nervous system.
b. are innate, automatic, and nearly universal.
c. will disappear as quickly as they originally occurred.
d. all of these.

43. the actions of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system
a. increases digestion
b. improve one’s chances of surviving an emergency
c. constricts the pupils of the eyes
d. calm the body after a person has experienced intense arousal

44. sudden death can occur
a. due to a parasympathetic rebound in reasonably healthy
b. due to the sympathetic effect in older persons or those with
heart problems.
c. when the blood pressure is lowered too much
d. all of these

45. the use of lie detectors to screen job applicants and check the honesty of employees is questionable because
a. it is a serious invasion of privacy
b. it cannot discriminate between different emotions, such as
lying and anxiety.
c. its accuracy is doubtful.
d. all of these

46. which of the following results would support the conclusion that emotional expression is universal?
a. sticking out one’s tongue in China as a gesture of surprise,
not teasing.
b. children born blind show the same emotional expressions as
sighted children.
c. facial expressions of basic emotions are different from those
listed by Plutchik
as primary.
d. all of these would support the conclusion that emotional
expressions are universal.

47. Marilyn has just entered the room. Anna and Larrita both smile at Marilyn, as evidenced by the corners of their mouth. However, Larrita also makes crinkles or crow’s feet in the outside corners of her eyes when she smiles. Anna’s smile is a(n) smile; Larrita’s smile is a(n) smile.
a. social; forced
b. Duchenne; social
c. authentic; Duchenne
d. forced; authentic

48. positive feelings in America emphasize the ; in Japan, positive feelings emphasize the .
a. individual; individual
b. group; group
c. individual; group
d. group; individual

49. it is most accurate to say that body language communicate
a. unconscious feelings the sender wishes to conceal.
b. only feelings of pleasantness-unpleasantness
c. an overall emotional tone
d. specific and detailed messages

50. Regarding body language, which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. body language reveals one’s overall emotional state.
b. a person sitting with his or her arms tightly crossed is a
consistent signal that this person is in total disagreement
with what you are saying.
c. liking is expressed mainly by leaning toward a person or
d. if another person copies your gestures and physical
postures, you are more inclined to like them.

51. A kinesics expert has determined that Jake is lying because his use of gestures called have decrease and the gestures called have increased.
a. illustrators emblems; emblems
b. emblems; illustrators
c. indicators; illustrators
d. emblems; indicators

52. After night class, your are walking back to your car when you catch a glimpse of someone running up behind you. You quickly turn and brace for a possible attack, but the student runs on by. It is only after you reacted to the possible attack that you realized that you felt afraid. Reacting before experiencing the feeling is BEST explained by which theory of emotions?
a. attribution theory
b. Schachter’s cognitive theory
c. Cannon-Bard theory
d. James-Lange theory

53. you and your mother are riding one of the fastest roller coasters in the country. Your interpretation of your adrenaline rush is delight, while your mother interprets her adrenaline rush as fear. Your different interpretations illustrate which theory of emotions?
a. the common sense theory
b. the James-Lange theory
c. Schachter’s cognitive theory
d. the Cannon-Bard theory

54. According to Valins, how we interpret arousal is determined by
a. hypothalamic activity
b. thalamic activity
c. limbic system feedback
d. the attributions we make

55. According to Lazarus, people tend to give personal meaning to any stimulus, evaluating it as good or bad, threatening or supportive, relevant or irrelevant, and so on. This illustrates
a. emotional appraisal
b. individual attribution
c. cognitive distinction
d. facial feedback

56. Which theory of emotion BEST explains how “putting on a happy face” can actually make you feel better?
a. Cannon-Bard theory
b. facial feedback hypothesis
c. Schachter’s cognitive theory
d. common sense theory

57. A common bond between all of the theories of emotion described in the text is that they consider an element of emotion.
a. attribution
b. kinesics
c. cognition
d. physiological arousal

58. Regarding the contemporary view of emotion, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
a. emotional stimuli may be an external object or event or an
internal memory.
b. the intensity of an emotional feeling is directly related to the
amount of
autonomic nervous system arousal taking place in the body.
c. how one appraises a situation greatly affects one’s emotions.
d. all of these

59. Jeanie tends to be comfortable in any situation and has the ability to make others feel the same way. She knows how to comfort her friends when they are feeling down, to encourage them in their struggles, and to share their joy when they succeed. Jeanie exhibits a great deal of
a. intuition
b. kinesic sensitivity
c. emotional intelligence
d. creative thinking

60. Tamika was diagnosed with stomach cancer and had her stomach surgically removed. After the operation, she probably
a. felt hungrier and ate more
b. continued to feel hungry and to eat regularly
c. felt less hungry and ate much less
d. starved since she could not eat

Expert:  Chris M. replied 2 years ago.

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Chris M., M.S.W. Social Work
Category: Homework
Satisfied Customers: 2542
Experience: Master's Degree, strong math and writing skills, experience in one-on-one tutoring (college English)
Chris M. and 8 other Homework Specialists are ready to help you
Expert:  Chris M. replied 2 years ago.
I have one correction to the above. The answer to #44, according to the textbook, should be 'D. all of the above'. Although sudden death from parasympathetic rebound is rare, it has been reported to have occurred.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.

These are for Chris H.

1. In understanding abnormality, which of the following statements is False?

a. non-conformity does not always indicate a disorder, and conformity is not a sure sign of mental health.

b. within a culture, a behavior may be defined as abnormal in one situational context but not another.

c. behaviors defined as abnormal in one culture are, by definition, abnormal in all cultures.

d. in all cultures, a consistent failure to communicate or behave predictably is considered abnormal.

2. regarding insanity and involuntary commitments to mental hospitals, which of the following statements is/are true?

a. legally, insanity is established by testimony by expert witnesses (psychologists and psychiatrists).

b. people who are involuntarily committed are usually judged to be a danger to themselves or to others.

c. involuntary commitments happen most often when the severely mentally disabled person is brought to the emergency room.

d. all of the above

3. Pablo is seen walking down the street, shouting at imaginary individuals “to turn it down.” When the police stop him and ask him why he is shouting, he tells them that the transmitter that the CIA implanted in his head is “not working properly” and is too loud. Pablo most likely has a disorder.

a. psychotic

b. neurotic

c. somatoform

d. dissociative

4. Mary’s mother has been diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease, which has caused damage to areas of the brain important for memory. This condition is considered to be a disorder.

a. personality

b. organic mental

c. neurotic

d. somatoform

5. Rene has an irrational fear of elevators and escalators to the point that she has walked 20 flights of stairs. Her mother has such a fear of dirt and germs that she spends almost every waking moment cleaning, while wearing white cotton gloves. Rene and her mother each have a type of disorder.

a. anxiety

b. psychotic

c. somatoform

d, personality

6. which of the following factors places a person at risk to develop psychopathology?

a. extremely poor child discipline

b. exposure to drugs

c. low intelligence

d. all of these

7. a belief that one’s body is “rotting” and ravaged by disease would be classified as a

a. somatic delusion

b. delusion of persecution

c. delusion of reference

d. Erotomania delusion

8. Regarding the symptoms of psychosis, which of the following is/are TRUE?

a. brain images from psychotic patients exhibiting a flat affect reveal that their brains are processing emotions abnormally.

b. during a psychotic episode, the person may be wildly elated, depressed, hyper-emotional, or apathetic.

c. some psychotic symptoms can be thought of as a primitive type of communication in which the patients are using their actions to say “I need help”.

d. all of the above

9. The expression of bizarre thoughts or beliefs that defy reality, withdrawal from family members and other relationships, and exhibiting extreme mood swings are

a. has a long standing personality disorder that will be difficult to treat.

b. indications that the person is faking jis or her symptoms in order to elicit sympathy from family and friends.

c. warning signs of psychotic disorders and/or major mood disorders and the need for immediate assessment.

d. a warning sign of drug addiction and antisocial behavior that requires immediate attention from law-enforcement officials.

10. regarding schizophrenia, which of the following is FALSE?

a. schizophrenia involves a “split personality” in which a person has 2 distinct personalities, one normal and one abnormal.

b. one person in a 100 has schizophrenia in any given year.

c. disorganized, catatonic, paranoid, and undifferentiated are the 4 major subtypes of schizophrenia.

d. many schizophrenic symptoms appear to be related to problems with selective attention.

11. which of the following regarding violence and psychosis is/are TRUE?

a. news reports and television programs tend to exaggerate the connection between mental illness and violence.

b. people who strongly believe that the mentally ill are prone to violence are typically afraid to have former mental patients as neighbors, coworkers, or friends.

c. only a small minority of the actively mentally ill poses an increased risk with the vast majority being non-violent.

d. all of the above.

12. Regarding hereditary influences and schizophrenia, it is most accurate to say that

a. heredity has been ruled out as a factor in schizophrenia.

b. some people may inherit a potential for schizophrenia.

c. the children of schizophrenic parents are least likely to develop schizophrenia.

d. if one identical twin is schizophrenic, the other will definitely develop schizophrenia at some time in his or her life.

13. the neurotransmitter appears to trigger a flood of unrelated thoughts, feelings, and perceptions, which may account for the voices, hallucinations, and delusions of schizophrenia.

a. dopamine

b. psychotropin

c. schizotoxin

d. acetylcholine

14. in view of current research, choose the best summary statement concerning the causes of schizophrenia.

a. a by-product of adrenaline called adrenochrome accumulates in the schizophrenic’s body.

b. schizophrenics are really adapting to an impossible environment created by double-blind communication.

c. inherited potential and environmental stress combine to bring about disruptive changes in brain chemistry.

d. extremely traumatic experiences early in childhood cause the first split in personality to form.

15. regarding major mood disorders, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

a. in serious cases of depression, its impossible for a person to function at work or at school or to even feed or dress themselves.

b. in very severe cases of depression or mania, persons may lose touch with reality and display psychotic symptoms.

c. major mood disorders appear to be produced from within the person rather than being a reaction to external events.

d. all of the above.

16. according to cognitive psychologists, depression is caused by

a. learned helplessness

b. self-criticism and self-defeating thoughts

c. imbalances of serotonin and noradrenaline

d. repressed anger that is turned inward as self-hate

17. regarding, specific phobias, which of the following is/are TRUE?

a. people affected by phobias recognize that their fears are unreasonable.

b. a phobic disorder differs from ordinary fears in that it produces overwhelming fear that may lead to vomiting, wild climbing or running, or fainting.

c. about 8% of all adults have phobic disorders during their lifetime.

d. all of the above.

18. regarding somatoform disorders, which of the following is/are TRUE?

a. persons with hypochondriasis cannot give up their fear of illness, even when doctors can find no medical basis for their complaints.

b. persons with a somatization disorder express their anxieties through numerous bodily complaints, fell ill much of the time, and visit doctors repeatedly.

c. a person with a pain disorder is disabled by pain that has no identifiable physical cause.

d. all of the above.

19. a behavioral therapist would explain the hypochondriac’s “sickness behavior” as

a. being reinforced by the sympathy and attention he or she receives.

b. a reflection of the loss of meaning he or she feels regarding life.

c. distorted thinking and perceptions regarding the world.

d. the result of unconscious conflicts between the subparts of the personality.

20. failure of hospital staff to detect fake patients in David Rosenhan’s studies can be attributed to the

a. acting ability of the pseudo-patients.

b. generally low quality of training of hospital staff members.

c. effects of labeling and context

d. fact that pseudo-patients were so heavily drugged.

21. regarding psychiatric labeling, which of the following is/are TRUE?

a. the terms or labels used for various mental disorders aids communication among therapists and medical personnel, but if used carelessly, can hurt people.

b. stigma associated with psychiatric labeling unfairly adds to the challenges faced by those with disorders.

c. people who have been labeled as mentally ill(at any time in their lives) are less likely to be hired and more likely to be denied housing.

d. all of the above.

22. regarding the treatment and prognosis for mental disorders, which of the following is/are TRUE?

a. many milder mental disorders can be successfully treated.

b. a major depression or a psychotic episode inevitably leads to a lifelong dysfunction.

c. major mental disorders rarely respond well to drugs or any other technique.

d. all of the above.

23. regarding suicide among college students, which of the following is/are TRUE?

a. suicide is the number 1 cause of death among college students.

b. chronic health problems, real or imagined, are factors in college suicides.

c. many of the college students who committed suicide were good students, who were not living up to their extremely high standards.

d. interpersonal difficulties, including being lonely or a rejected lover, are important factors in college suicides.

24. which of the following is NOT considered a major risk factor for suicide?

a. availability of a firearm

b. unexpectedly changing friends

c. shame, humiliation, failure, or rejection

d. drug or alcohol use

25. which of the following is an important warning sign of a potential suicide?

a. grandiose schemes

b. constant apparent cheerfulness

c. withdrawal from contact with others

d. constant criticism of others

26. regarding suicide, which of the following is/are TRUE?

a. of every 10 potential suicides, 8 give warning beforehand.

b. most people who are contemplating suicide are relieved when someone comes to their aid.

c. its estimated that about 2/3 of all suicide attempts are made by people who do not really want to die with almost all of the others being ambivalent or undecided about dying.

d. all of the above.

27. to help prevent individuals from committing suicide, you should

a. tell them to avoid thinking about suicide.

b. establish rapport and offer genuine support

c. help them to narrow their options

d. try to convince them to stop feeling sorry for themselves.

28. what is the best course of action when a person is threatening suicide and has a specific, workable plan?

a. document the incident in case the situation worsens, but take care not to overreact.

b. ask the person to accompany you to a mental health clinic or hospital emergency room.

c. be supportive and try to get day-to-day commitments from the person, such as meeting for lunch.

d. ignore the threat so that you don’t reinforce death-obsessed verbalizations.

29. which of the following is the most likely outcome for psychotherapy?

a. a complete personal transformation

b. learning skills to better cope with stress

c. overcoming the effects of early psychologically damaging experiences.

d. a renewal of intellectual and creative abilities.

30. regarding psychotherapy, which of the following is/are TRUE?

a. psychotherapy is not restricted to solving psychological problems, but can facilitate personal growth.

b. chances for improvement through psychotherapy are fairly good for phobias, low self-esteem, and marital conflicts.

c. psychotherapy may be beneficial to someone who is trying to solve a personal crisis.

d. all of the above.

31. the American psychological association urges media psychologists to

a. provide their services for free.

b. obtain more personal information from the caller before diagnosing the problem.

c. discuss problems in a general manner, instead of counseling.

d. stop conducting any kind of call-in shows.

32. overall concerns with internet therapies include

a. the fact that some providers may not be “trained” professionals

b. the possibility that communications can be intercepted and misused

c. whether a psychologist licensed in one state can legally do therapy in another, via the internet.

d. all of these concerns

33. the principal assumption of behavior modification is that

a. all types of therapy are ultimately based on classical conditioning

b. unconscious conflicts can be uncovered and unlearned

c. problems in behavior are learned and can be changed

d. symptoms cannot be alleviated until the causes are determined

34. regarding token economies, which of the following is FALSE?

a. they involve both payment and exchange of tokens in institutional settings

b. they are often used as latent reinforcement of desired behaviors.

c. the most effective token economies are those that gradually switch from tokens to social rewards.

d. they can result in marked changes in patients’ behavior and adjustment

35. cognitive psychotherapy is based on the assumption that psychological problems are essentially caused by

a. conditions of worth

b. repressed anger

c. faulty or maladaptive thinking

d. avoidance learning

36. in order to help their clients, cognitive therapists look for

a. the absence of effective coping skills or the presence of self-defeating thoughts

b. the underlying causes of depression and the reinforcement that is maintaining them.

c. conditioned avoidance and escape responding

d. unconscious conflicts and efforts to distort reality

37. regarding cognitive therapy, which of the following is/are TRUE?

a. cognitive therapy is as effective as drugs for treating many cases of depression.

b. people who have adopted new thinking patterns are less likely to become depressed again.

c. stress inoculation techniques are good examples of cognitive therapy.

d. all of the above.

38. regarding family and couples therapy, which of the following is/are TRUE?

a. family and couples therapies tend to be brief and focused on specific problems

b. family therapists believe that a problem experienced by one family member is really the whole family’s problem.

c. if a family crisis is at hand, the therapist may first try to identify the most resourceful family members, who can help solve the immediate problem.

d. all of the above.

39. regarding the effectiveness of therapy, which of the following is FALSE?

a. studies have shown that some therapies are more effective for specific disorders

b. hundreds of studies show a strong pattern of positive effects for psychotherapy, counseling, and other psychological treatments.

c. in a national survey, it was found that almost 6 out of 10 people who have sought mental health care say their lives improved as a result of the treatment.

d. when experiments are used to determine the effectiveness of therapies, a waiting-list control group is often used.

40. goals of psychotherapy include

a. the resolution of conflicts.

b. changing unacceptable patterns of behavior

c. restoring a sense of hope and optimism to clients.

d. all of the above

41. emotional rapport, warmth, friendship, understanding, acceptance, and empathy are the basis for the that unites the client and therapist as they work together to solve the client’s problems.

a. carthartic bonding

b. therapeutic alliance

c. mirror effect

d. reciprocal determinism

42. which of the following has been shown by research to have the greatest impact on whether therapy succeds?

a. the amount of emotional cartharsis that takes place

b. the strength of the therapeutic alliance

c. whether an explanation or rationale is found for the client’s suffering

d. whether the client is given a chance to practice new behaviors in a real-life setting

43. which is NOT a characteristic of all psychotherapies?

a. therapy provides a caring relationship between the client and therapist.

b. the emphasis is placed on past experiences.

c. a protected setting is offered for working out problems.

d. a rationale for the client’s suffering and a proposed line of action to end the suffering is offered.

44. an effective therapist

a. is an enthusiastic learner and values complexity and ambiguity

b. is mentally healthy and mature and nurtures their own emotional well-being

c. have strong social skills and expertly use these skills in therapy

d. all of the above

45. according to your textbook, the future of psychotherapy will include an increase in all of the following EXCEPT

a. the use of computer-guided sessions that identify and help solve problems

b. the use of psychiatrists and psychoanalysts

c. telephone and internet counseling

d. more therapy being provided by master’s level practitioners

46. which of the following is NOT an effective counseling skill?

a. active listening

b. focusing on feelings

c. providing several solutions to the problem

d. accepting the person’s perception of the world

47. your friend, Kiki, comes to you with a personal problem. The first thing you should do to counsel her is to

a. give her advice on what she should do

b. ask a lot of questions to get her talking

c. tell her what you what do in her situation

d. actively listen to try to clarify the problem

48. when you are using the counseling skill known as reflection, you

a. ask open-ended questions

b. give feedback by simply restating what was said

c. encourage catharsis by eliciting defensiveness in the person you are counseling.

d. all of the above.

49. regarding pharmacotherapy, which of the following is FALSE?

a. it involves the use of drugs to treat behavioral and emotional problems

b. it involves other medical treatments, such as ECT or EMDR.

c. it is considered a type of somatic therapy

d. it is most beneficial when used in combination with some form of psychotherapy

50. which of the following is NOT one of the major advantages of antipsychotic drugs?

a. they are known to reduce or eliminate delusions in many patients

b. they have been helpful in treating some cases of schizophrenia that were considered hopeless.

c. they typically cause only minor side effects.

d. they have shortened hospital stays

51. when it comes to treating chronic schizophrenia,

a. Risperdal is significantly less effective than Clozaril

b. both Clozaril and Risperdal have possibly lethal side effects

c. Risperdal seems to have a more favorable risk-benefit ratio

d. Clozaril has milder side effects than Risperdal

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