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1. Which of the following is true with respect to the data
1. Which of the following is true with respect to the data link layer?<br /> A) It accepts streams of bits from the application layer. <br />B) It is responsible for getting a message from one computer to another (one node to another) without errors. <br />C) It does not perform error detection.<br /> D) It performs routing functions.<br /> E) It organizes data from the physical layer and passes these coherent messages to the application layer.<br /><br /> 2. With contention:<br /> A) computers wait until the circuit is free before they send data<br /> B) the server or front end processor works consecutively through a list of clients to determine who should have access to the media<br /> C) the front end processor must wait for a response from the polled client or terminal D) one computer starts the poll and passes it to the next computer on the multipoint circuit<br /> E) there is never a chance for “collision,” or two computers trying to send data at the same time<br /> <br />3. The familiar background static on radios and telephones is called:<br /> A) echoes<br /> B) intermodulation noise<br /> C) line outages<br /> D) cross-talk <br />E) white noise <br /><br />4. When a signal is reflected back to the transmitting equipment, it is called a(n) _________.<br /> A) jitter B) echo C) crosstalk D) attenuation E) impulse noise <br /><br />5. If a signal with a frequency of 500 MHz combines with a another signal of 1500 MHz and they form a new signal of 2000 MHz; this is an example of:<br /> A) intermodulation noise B) attenuation C) echo D) jitter E) harmonic distortion<br /><br /> 6. _____________ is an effective way to prevent attenuation. A) Shielding wires B) Adding fluorescent lights C) Adding repeaters or amplifiers to a circuit D) Changing multiplexing techniques E) Shorting a circuit <br /><br />7. Which of the following is not an error detection method used in the data link layer?<br /> A) parity checking B) cyclic redundancy checking C) CRC-32 D) pulse code checking E) odd parity <br /><br />8. Using parity, the probability for detecting an error, given that one has occurred, is: <br />A) about 50% for either even or odd parity B) about 70% for even parity and 30% for odd parity C) about 30% for even parity and 70% for odd parity D) about 0% for either even or odd parity E) about 100% for either even or odd parity <br /><br />9. In ARQ, a NAK: <br />A) is sent by the recipient if the message was received without error B) is sent by the sender at the same time as it sends a data packet C) is sent by the recipient if the message contains an error D) refers to non-asynchronous Kermit technique E) means that the sender should continue with sending the next message<br /><br /> 10. With __________ ARQ, the sender pauses for a response from the receiver to alter each message or packet of data.<br /> A) open window B) halt and be recognized (HBR) C) sliding window D) stop and wait E) continuous <br /><br />11. Which of the following is not a type of synchronous protocol? A) SDLC B) VT100 C) HDLC D) Ethernet E) PPP <br /><br />12. Which of the following is true about the data link protocol, SDLC: <br />A) It is a client-server protocol developed by Compaq in 1996 B) It is a byte-count-oriented protocol C) It uses a special bit pattern called a flag at the beginning and end of every frame (or packet) D) It uses a contention media access control protocol E) It does not have a problem with transparency <br /><br />13. Calculating the actual throughput of a data communication network is: <br />A) not normally required for synchronous networks because they are so fast B) complex because many factors affect throughput C) simple because packet size is the primary factor affecting throughput D) not needed for satellite-based networks E) far less complicated if the system operates on a contention basis <br /><br />14. ____________ refers to the transmission characteristics of the circuit.<br /> A) handshaking B) virtual circuit C) bonding D) logical circuit E) physical circuit <br /><br />15. Having a conversation with someone using a cellular phone is an example of _________ transmission.<br /> A) simplex B) full-duplex C) half-duplex D) analog E) digital <br /><br />16. The two basic types of media are: A) statistical and frequency B) guided and wireless (radiated) C) local and wide area D) attenuator and Gaussian E) duplexed and non-duplexed <br /><br />17. ___________ refers to the spreading of the signal that different parts of the signal arrive at different times at the destination. <br />A) turnaround time B) propagation delay C) dispersion D) insulation E) attenuation <br /><br />18. __________ is a line-of-sight type of wireless media.<br /> A) coaxial cable B) microwave C) radio D) twisted pair E) fiber optic <br /><br />19. Which of the following media has the lowest error rates and the highest transmission speeds?<br /> A) coaxial cable B) unshielded twisted pair C) shielded twisted pair D) fiber optic cable E) infrared <br /><br />20. The representation of the character A by the group of 8 bits, 01000001, is an example of:<br /> A) digital coding B) phase modulation C) binary modulation D) analog transmission E) pitch variation <br /><br />21. ___________ is not a type of digital signaling technique. A) Non-return-to-zero signaling B) Unipolar signaling C) Manchester encoding D) Return-to-zero signaling E) Data rate signaling <br /><br />22. Which type of digital signaling would experience fewer errors because it has more distinct signals? A) unipolar B) serial C) bipolar D) attenuation E) Huffman encoding signal <br /><br />23. The height of a sound wave is called its: A) frequency B) phase C) amplitude D) bandwidth E) furlong <br /><br />24. With respect to converting digital data into analog signals, AM stands for:<br /> A) Asynchronous Manchester B) Analog Multimode C) Amplitude Modulation D) Anomaly Multiplexing E) Analytical Mosaic <br /><br />25. When sending four bits at a time using frequency modulation, the number of different frequency levels that would be needed would be _______. <br />A) 24 B) 16 C) 2 D) 8 E) 4<br /><br /> 26. A ________ is a very large general-purpose computer that is capable of performing very many functions as if these are done simultaneously, and storing extremely large amounts of data.<br /> A) workstation B) transaction terminal C) cluster D) mainframe E) microcomputer <br /><br />27. A ________ is a group of computers linked together so that they act as one computer. A) workstation B) terminal C) cluster D) network computer E) transaction terminal<br /><br /> 28. A ________ is a group of computers linked together so that they act as one computer.<br /> A) handheld B) mainframe C) network computer D) cluster E) transaction terminal <br /><br />29. _________ is an application program function that deals with storing and retrieving data. <br />A) data storage B) data access logic C) application logic D) presentation logic E) application access storage <br /><br />30. ________ is the presentation of information to the user and the acceptance of the user's commands. A) data storage B) data access logic C) application logic D) presentation logic E) application access storage <br /><br />31. With a client-based network, one fundamental problem is that:<br /> A) the clients each must store all the data B) the server does not have any data storage capability C) the host or server must perform presentation logic, application logic, and data access logic at the same time D) all data on the server must travel to the client for processing E) the clients must perform the data storage logic <br /><br />32. With the two-tier client-server architecture, the client is responsible for the ________ logic and the server is responsible for the ________ logic. A) Application; presentation B) Presentation; data access C) Data access; presentation D) Application; data access E) Presentation; application storage<br /><br /> 33. How are the application architecture functions split up in a client-server network?<br /> A) the presentation logic and data storage are on the client, while the data access logic is on the server B) the data storage, data access, and presentation logic are on the client C) the presentation logic is on the client, while the data storage and data access logic are on the server D) the data storage and data access logic are on the client, while the presentation logic are on the server E) the presentation logic and data access logic are on the client, and the data storage is on the server <br /><br />34. A(n) _________-tiered architecture uses only two sets of computers: one set of clients and one set of servers. <br />A) one B) two C) three D) five E) n <br /><br />35. A “thin client” architecture approach: <br />A) always is a two-tier network architecture B) always is an n-tiered architecture C) places all or almost all of the application logic on the client D) places all or almost all of the application logic on the server E) refers to the size of the cable connecting the clients to the network <br /><br />36. To get a page from the Web, a user must type in a URL, which stands for:<br /> A) Unknown Resource Locator B) Unknown Router Location C) Uniform Router Location D) Uniform Resource Locator E) Uniform Resource Library<br /><br /> 37. There are optional and required parts of an HTTP request. They are:<br /> A) request address, request body B) request address, request header, request body C) request line, request header D) request line, request body E) request line, request header, request body <br /><br />38. A response status code of 404 means: A) the requested page was not found B) the server is currently unavailable C) the sever is currently busy D) your browser is incompatible with the Web server software. E) your browser needs to be updated to the latest version. <br /><br />39. Which of the following is not a user agent package?<br /> A) Outlook Express B) Microsoft Word C) Fedora D) Netscape Messenger E) Microsoft Outlook <br /><br />40. The acronym, MIME, refers to: A) Multimedia Internet Mail Enterprise B) Multiple Internet Media Extension C) Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension D) Media Internet Mail Extension E) Multimedia Internet Mime Extension<br /><br /> 41. _______ is the dominant network protocol today.<br /> A) SDLC B) SNA C) IPX/SPX D) TCP/IP E) X.25<br /><br /> 42. A typical TCP packet has a _______ header of control information.<br /> A) 32-bit B) 64-bit C) 160-bit D) 192-bit E) 32-byte <br /><br />43. TCP uses _____________ so that the destination station can reassemble the packets into the correct order.<br /> A) IP addresses B) sequence numbers C) port numbers D) packet numbers E) reassembly value <br /><br />44. The older version of IP has a ________ header of control information.<br /> A) 128-bit B) 192-bit C) 1024-bit D) 160-bit E) 320-bit <br /><br />45. UDP is not commonly used for: <br />A) network management control messages B) RIP messages C) DHCP addressing messages D) HTTP requests E) routing control messages <br /><br />46. With QoS routing different __________ are defined, each with different priorities.<br /> A) classes of service B) domain names C) application layer addresses D) data link layer addresses E) classes of Internet addresses <br /><br />47. ICANN:<br /> A) developed the IPX/SPX network layer protocol B) assigns data link layer addresses C) approves which network layer addresses (usually, approved or assigned in groups or classes) can be used by an organization for its computers that will connect to the Internet D) developed X.25 network layer protocol E) refers to Interchange Computer Addressing Networks and Nodes <br /><br />48. A(n) ________ refers to a group of computers that are logically grouped together by IP number. <br />A) IPv6 group B) subnet C) data link group D) TCP group E) application net<br /><br /> 49. ___________ is the translation of application layer addresses into IP addresses.<br /> A) Network interface card reversal B) IPv6 C) Server name resolution D) Subnet masking E) Name service coding <br /><br />50. When TCP/IP translates an application layer address into an IP address, it sends a special __________ to the nearest DNS server. <br />A) broadcast message B) DNS request packet C) SNA packet D) IPX message E) X.25 packet <br /><br />51. An advantage of centralized routing is:<br /> A) routing does reflect changing network conditions, such as computers that are overloaded by many messages B) if anything happens to the computer developing the routing table, the routing tables cannot be changed until that computer is fixed, or until a new computer is selected to perform the function C) routing decisions are simple D) the routing tables are stored at all computers in the network E) it requires more processing by each computer or router in the network than dynamic routing<br /><br /> 52. One drawback to dynamic routing is: <br />A) Routing usually does not reflect changing network conditions, such as computers that are overloaded by many messages B) It cannot be used with non-government networks C) The transmission of status information “wastes” network capacity that could be used to send user messages D) It is the job of the network manager, not the computers or devices themselves, to maintain the routing table. E) It requires less processing by each computer than static routing. <br /><br />53. The ping command uses the most basic interior routing protocol on the Internet, which is the: <br />A) Border Gateway Protocol B) Internet Control Message Protocol C) Routing Information Protocol D) Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol E) Open Shortest Path First <br /><br />54. A special type of message that is used when sending the same message to a specific group of computers is called a:<br /> A) unicast message B) multicast message C) broadcast message D) guided message E) radiated message<br /><br /> 55. three layers of a network model are the components required for a typical network, including local area networks. A) True B) False <br /><br />56. A(n) _____________ is not a common type of dedicated server. <br />A) file server B) print server C) database server D) collision server E) remote access server<br /><br /> 57. Which of the following is not an advantage of using Cat5 unshielded twisted pair for cabling LANs?<br /> A) cost (relative to fiber) B) thickness (relative to coax) C) weight (relative to coax) D) flexibility (relative to coax) E) security (relative to fiber) <br /><br />58. Which of the following is not a purpose for using hubs in a network? A) to act as a communications server B) to connect network cables C) to prevent attenuation D) to act as a junction box E) none of the above<br /><br /> 59. Hubs: A) usually incorporate repeaters or amplifiers B) have connection points called handles C) limit the distance of a network to a few meters in length D) are a difficult method to connect network cables E) operate at the application layer<br /><br /> 60. The server version of the Network Operating System does not:<br /> A) provide the software that performs the functions associated with the physical layer B) provide the software that performs the functions associated with the data link layer C) provide the software that performs the functions associated with the application layer D) provide the software that performs the functions associated with the network layer E) usually provide the software that performs the functions associated with the computer's own operating system<br /><br /> 61. A __________ indicates what resources on each server are available on the network for use by other computers and what people are allowed what access to the network. A) user profile B) user access log C) network profile D) network operating system E) server allocation list <br /><br />62. Ethernet LAN was developed by: <br />A) IBM B) ARPANET C) DEC, Xerox, and Intel D) University of Minnesota E) CERN laboratory in Geneva <br /><br />63. A logical bus topology:<br /> A) is always used by token ring protocol LANs B) has all computers connected to each other in point-to-point connections C) is limited to short distances since devices like a hub or repeater cannot be used with this type of topology D) permits every message to be received by every computer on the bus, even when those messages are intended for other computers E) has a central control device, such as a mainframe <br /><br />64. _________ is not a type of Ethernet specification.<br /> A) 100Base-T B) 10GbE C) 1000Base-T (1GbE) D) 10Base-T E) Securenet <br /><br />65. Which of the following is not true about 10/100 Ethernet? <br />A) It is not a hybrid type of Ethernet. B) It provides flexibility for organizations that want to use both the 10Base-T and 100Base-T standards at the same time. C) 10/100 autosense hubs (and/or switches) are able to detect the signal transmitted by the client's NIC and use 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps, depending on what the client uses. D) Depending upon how it is configured, a 10/100 Ethernet NIC can run at either 10 Mbps or at 100 Mbps. E) It provides flexibility for organizations that are uncertain about which Ethernet standard to use in the short term.<br /><br /> 66. A switch uses a _____________ that is very similar to a routing table used in a router.<br /> A) cable plan B) forwarding table C) network server D) reversing table E) switching mullion <br /><br />67. Which of the following is a mode in which a switch operates: A) fast learning switching B) routing switching C) fragment-free switching D) store switching E) cut switching<br /><br /> 68. On a 10Base-T switched network with 10 computers, we could get a network capacity of: A) 60 Mbps B) 5 Mbps C) 80 Mbps D) 9.5 Mbps E) 70 Mbps <br /><br />69. Breaking a network into smaller parts is called network:<br /> A) fragmentation B) segmentation C) localization D) allocation E) mitigation <br /><br />70. A backbone network is a high-speed network that connects many networks.<br /> A) True B) False <br /><br />71. Switches: A) learn addresses by reading the source and destination addresses B) operate at the physical layer only C) connect two ore more network segments that use different data link protocols D) connect two or more network segments that use different network protocols E) have become more popular than layer 2 switches <br /><br />72. ____________ routers can understand different network layer protocols. A) Multiprotocol B) 3270 emulation C) ASCII/EBCDIC D) Asynchronous E) Bridge-<br /><br /> 73. Which of the following is a fundamental backbone network architecture? A) Bridged backbone B) Virtual LAN C) Hubbed backbone D) Gatewayed backbone E) Virtual backbone <br /><br />74. A __________ type of BN has a star topology with one device, such as a switch, at its center.<br /> A) Bridged backbone B) Virtual LAN C) Hubbed backbone D) Switched backbone E) Routed backbone <br /><br />75. Which of the following is not true about multi-switch VLANs?<br /> A) Several switches are used to build a VLAN B) The switches in the VLAN can send packets among themselves in a way that identifies the VLAN to which the packet belongs. C) In some multi-switch VLANs, the Ethernet packet is modified based on the emerging IEEE 802.1q standard. D) In some multi-switch VLANs, a new VLAN packet encapsulates the Ethernet packet. E) All of the above are true statements. <br /><br />76. Network demand will not be reduced by:<br /> A) restricting (or moving) applications such as desktop videoconferencing B) using network devices to ensure that broadcast messages do not go to other networks C) encouraging the use of applications such as medical imaging D) sending status information to all computers on all LANs in the backbone network E) restricting (or moving) applications such as multimedia<br /><br /> 77. The _________ is the part of the backbone that connects the different backbones together.<br /> A) Access layer B) Distribution layer C) Core layer D) Privacy layer E) Switched layer <br /><br />78. It appears that the use of _____ is decreasing in backbones while the use of ____ is increasing. <br />A) WLAN, ATM B) Ethernet, ATM C) IEEE 802.1q, ATM D) ATM, Ethernet E) 10GbE, Ethernet <br /><br />79. In building Wide Area Networks, many organizations do not build their own long distance communication circuits A) True B) False <br /><br />80. Adoption of narrowband ISDN in North America has been: A) fast B) slow C) rapid D) non existent, since it is not offered in North America E) none of the above<br /><br /> 81. A ________ geometric layout connects all computers in a closed loop, with each computer linked to the next usually with a series of point-to-point dedicated circuits. A) bus design B) star design C) full mesh design D) ring design E) partial mesh design<br /><br />82. In a ring design WAN, <br />A) failure in one circuit means that the network can most likely continue to function B) failure in one circuit always means that the network will cease to function C) failure in one computer always means that the network will cease to function D) failure in one circuit means that there will not be any increased traffic delays in the network E) failure in one computer always means that messages will stop at that computer since it would be impossible to re-route traffic<br /><br /> 83. The data rate for a T-1 circuit in North America is:<br /> A) 1.544 Mbps B) 6.312 Mbps C) 44.376 Mbps D) 274.176 Mbps E) 1.544 Gbps <br /><br />84. Which of the following is not a benefit of packet switched services? <br />A) The data transmission rates tend to be lower than dial-up or dedicated circuits. <br />B) You don't have to set up dedicated circuits between each end point from and to which you wish to transmit data and/or voice. C) You have the flexibility to send data through a temporary circuit between two connections that will be disconnected as soon as the digital transmission is completed. D) All circuits are less susceptible to a great deal of noise because they are digital. E) You don't have to specify all the interconnecting services you need for your WAN when you buy the service.<br /><br /> 85. Which of the following is a primary advantage of a VPN?<br /> A) low cost B) inflexibility C) unpredictable traffic congestion D) security E) complexity to the user <br /><br />86. Dynamic routing: <br />A) imposes an overhead cost by increasing network traffic B) decreases performance in networks which have many possible routes C) decreases performance in networks with “bursty” traffic D) should be used in 80 to 90 percent of total networks' capacity E) is another term for static routing in WANs <br /><br />87. Security on a network not only means being able to prevent a hacker from breaking into your computer but also includes being able to recover from temporary service problems or from natural disasters. A) True B) False <br /><br />88. An example of _____ of data would be if a computer virus eliminated files on that computer. A) disruption B) controlled chaos C) intrusion D) destruction E) disaster<br /><br /> 89. A hacker gaining access to organizational data files and resources is an example of a(n) ____________ threat. A) contentious B) controlled chaos C) disruptive D) intrusion E) disaster<br /><br /> 90. The key principle in preventing disruption, destruction and disaster is ___________. A) redundancy B) control spreadsheet C) IDS D) anti-virus software E) prevention controls<br /><br /> 91. A ____________ is a situation in which a hacker attempts to disrupt the network by sending messages to the network that prevent normal users' messages from being processed. A) denial-of-service attack B) service level agreement C) virus D) spamming E) scamming <br /><br />92. The three basic network access points into most organizational networks are from the Internet, from LANs inside of the organization and ________________. <br />A) dial-up access through a modem B) intranet C) extranet D) WAN E) none of the above <br /><br />93. Which of the following are usually the first choice for eavesdropping? <br />A) unshielded twisted pair B) shielded twisted pair C) local cables owned by the organization D) infrared E) fiber optics <br /><br />94. A sniffer program is a:<br /> A) type of macro-virus B) small peep-hole in a door or wall to allow a security guard to sniff the area with his or her nose before entering a secure area or location C) used in a call-back modem D) a program that records all LAN messages received for later (unauthorized) analysis E) secure hub program <br /><br />95. IP spoofing means to:<br /> A) fool the target computer and any intervening firewall into believing that messages from the intruder's computer are actually coming from an authorized user inside the organization's network B) clad or cover the internal processing (IP) lines with insulating material to shield the IP lines from excess heat or radiation C) illegally tape or listen in on telephone conversations D) detect and prevent denial-of-service attacks E) act as an intermediate host computer between the Internet and the rest of the organization's networks <br /><br />96. Spyware, adware and DDOS agents are three types of:<br /> A) IP spoofing attacks B) Denial-of-service attacks C) Trojans D) Physical security threats E) Intrusion prevention detection approaches <br /><br />97. __________ provide authentication which can legally prove who sent a message over a network. <br />A) Digital signatures B) DES keys C) Directory keys D) Screen names E) User Ids <br /><br />98. A fundamental technique to determine if an intrusion is in progress in a stable network is:<br /> A) anomaly detection B) armoring cable C) RSA algorithm D) patching E) scanning a user's fingerprint<br /><br /> 99. The familiar background static on radios and telephones is called: a. echoes b. intermodulation noise c. line outages d. cross-talk e. white noise <br /><br />100. A key problem when designing data communications networks is how to adapt to new technologies while organizations change. A) True B) False <br /><br />101. Which of the following is not contributing to the dramatic increase in network traffic today? <br />A) Video applications on networks are becoming common. B) Electronic mail is now used by most people who work in organizations. C) Web searches are now commonly performed by network users. D) Client computers today can have 2GB of RAM, a 300 GB hard drive, and 2 Ghz processors. E) Multimedia applications on networks are becoming common. <br /><br />102. In __________, the network designer examines the available technologies and assesses which options will meet the users' needs.<br /> A) technology design B) needs analysis C) narrow and deep analysis D) cost assessment E) distribution layering <br /><br />103. Which of the following is not a conceptual part, or layer, of the geographic scope of the network?<br /> A) core layer B) application layer C) access layer D) distribution layer E) the layer that connects the different distribution layers to each other <br /><br />104. Which of the following is not an example of a building block used in technology design? <br />A) typical application B) typical user C) high traffic application D) standard network circuit E) specifications for a particular lighting fixture in the network operating center <br /><br />105. __________ is an estimate of the highest data volume on a link.<br /> A) Data mode B) Backplane load C) Peak circuit traffic D) Leading edge data flow E) Circuit transfer <br /><br />106. Which of the following is not a main item for which network designers estimate costs for the proposed network?<br /> A) software B) hardware C) purchasing and installing circuits D) ergonomic chairs for users E) circuits provided by common carriers <br /><br />107. Correlating the individual error messages into a pattern to find the true cause of the problem is referred to as _______.<br /> A) network-based analysis B) application cause analysis C) root cause analysis D) alarm storm E) none of the above is an appropriate answer <br /><br />108. Storing other people's Web data closer to your users is referred to as<br /> A) SNMP B) web storing C) content caching D) load balancing E) traffic analysis <br /><br />109. Network managers manage the configuration management of their networks as one of their key tasks. A) True B) False <br /><br />110. ___________ ensures that the network is operating as efficiently as possible.<br /> A) Firefighting B) Fault tolerance C) Fault management D) Performance management E) Troubleshooting <br /><br />111. Network devices that are ________ do only what they are designed to do, such as routing packets, but do not provide any network management information. A) voice-activated B) bursty C) faulty D) dumb E) intelligent <br /><br />112. _____________ is the percentage of time the network is usable by users<br />. A) Retransmission rate B) Availability C) MTTDiagnose D) Downtime E) MTBF <br /><br />113. Which of the following is not a main function within end user support?<br /> A) resolving network faults B) training C) resolving user problems D) spin control E) none of the above is an appropriate answer <br /><br />114. __________ policies attempt to allocate costs associated with a WAN or a mainframe to specific users<br />A) Charge-back B) Web spinning C) Internet access fees D) Support staff billing E) ESD <br /><br />115. ___________ is an orderly close to a dialogue between end users.<br /> A) Session termination B) Physical bits C) Frame overhead D) Packet encapsulation E) Message encryption <br /><br />116. Which of the following is not an application layer standard?<br /> A) HTTP B) POP C) T1 D) IMAP E) HTML <br /><br />117. Pervasive networking means that:<br /> A) the five-layer network model will be used to design all networks B) all networks of the future will be developed by a monopolistic organization C) the cost of computers will be higher in the future D) virtually all computers will be networked in some way to other computers and be able to transmit data at staggeringly fast rates E) cable companies will offer more than 150 network selections for viewers <br /><br />118. Dynamic addressing: <br />A) assigns a permanent network layer address to a client computer in a network B) makes network management more complicated in dial-up networks C) has only one standard, bootp D) is always performed for servers only E) can solve many updating headaches for network managers who have large, growing, changing networks <br /><br />119. A _____________ type of BN segments (each of which has a special set of subnet addresses that can be managed by different network managers) each part of the network connected to the backbone.<br /> A) bridged backbone B) virtual LAN C) hubbed backbone D) collapsed backbone E) routed backbone <br /><br />120. A subnetted or hierarchical backbone can also be called:<br /> A) Bridged backbone B) Virtual LAN C) Hubbed backbone D) Collapsed backbone E) Routed backbone
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