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I am looking for chapter 7-16 from the book understanding operating systems by ann mciver mchoes/ida m. flynn 5th edition? Here are the questions: Study Guide - Chapter 7: Device Management TRUE/FALSE 1. The universal serial bus (USB) controller is a virtual device that acts as an interface between the operating system, device drivers, and applications and the devices that are attached via the USB host. 2. On a magnetic tape, the inter-record gap (IRG) is about 2 inches long regardless of the sizes of the records it separates. 3. Direct access storage devices (DASDs) are devices that can directly read or write to a specific place on a disk. 4. A fixed-head disk is lower in cost than a movable head disk. 5. A fundamental difference between an optical disc and a magnetic disk is the track and sector design. 6. Two of the most important measures of optical disc drive performance are sustained data-transfer rate and longest access time. 7. The first major users of CD-ROMs were libraries and corporations that needed text-based information and reference works such as encyclopedias, system documentation and user training material. 8. An MO disk is covered with a silicone-based glass alloy that needs something more powerful than the magnetic field generated by the read/write head to change states. 9. DASDs are good for files with low activity (the percent of records accessed) or for users who access records in a random fashion. 10. The job of the I/O control unit is to keep up with the I/O requests from the CPU and pass them down the line to the appropriate control unit. 11. Each unit in the I/O subsystem can finish its operation independently from the others. 12. When using DMA, the CPU is involved in transferring data to and from memory for the entire transfer. 13. Buffers are used to store data read from an input device before it’s needed by the processor and to store data that will be written to an output device. 14. The traffic controller maintains a file containing the status and connections for each unit in the I/O subsystem, grouped into Channel Control Blocks, Control Unit Control Blocks, and Device Control Blocks. 15. A find strategy determines the order in which the processes get the I/O handler device, and the goal is to keep seek time to a minimum. 16. First-come, first-served (FCFS) is the simplest device-scheduling algorithm. 17. The SCAN algorithm moves the arm methodically from the inner to the outer track, servicing every request in its path. 18. N-Step SCAN doesn’t incorporate requests into the arm’s path as it travels, but holds all the requests until the arm starts on its way back. 19. RAID is a set of logical disk drives that is viewed as a single physical unit by the operating system. 20. RAID introduces the much-needed concept of redundancy to help systems recover from hardware failure, it also requires fewer disk drives, which decreases hardware costs. 21. RAID Level 0 is the only one that does not provide error correction, or redundancy, and so it is not considered a true form of RAID because it cannot recover from hardware failure. 22. RAID-0 is ideal for data-critical real-time systems. 23. The advantage of RAID Level 3 is that if any one drive fails, data can be restored using the bits in the parity disk. 24. Linux allows new device classes to support emerging devices such as USB drives, FireWire devices, and more. 25. Network interfaces are dissimilar from both char and block devices because their function is to send and receive packets of information as directed by the network subsystem of the kernel. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ____ devices are assigned to only one job at a time. a. Dedicated c. Virtual b. Shared d. Static 2. The USB controller assigns bandwidth to each device depending on its priority; how many priorities are there? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5 3. The number of characters that can be recorded per inch on a magnetic tape is determined by the ____ of the tape. a. width c. density b. length d. parity 4. If the transport speed for a magnetic tape is 200 inches per second and the density is 1600 bpi, a total of ____ bytes can be transferred in one second. a. 3,200 c. 320,000 b. 32,000 d. 3,200,000 5. If it takes 2.5 minutes to reach the last record on a tape, what is the average access time? a. .5 minutes c. 1.25 minutes b. 1 minute d. 2 minutes 6. In a fixed-head magnetic disk, each circle is called a ____. a. sector c. track b. block d. platter 7. How many read/write heads are there for each platter on a fixed-head magnetic disk? a. 0 c. 2 b. 1 d. 4 8. The advent of optical discs was made possible by developments in ____ technology. a. magnetic c. storage b. laser d. silicone 9. Which of the following is true of an optical disc? a. sectors are of different sizes - larger on the outside of the disk b. it spins at a constant angular velocity (CAV) c. sectors at the outside of the disk spin faster past the read/write head than the inner sectors d. there is only one track 10. The data-transfer rate for an optical disc is measured in ____ and refers to the speed at which massive amounts of data can be read from the disc. a. KBps c. GBps b. MBps d. TBps 11. When making CDs for sale, such as music or software CDs, data is recorded on a master disc by means of a high-intensity laser beam, which burns indentations, called pits, and flat areas, called ____. a. lands c. hills b. valleys d. lakes 12. The software used to create a CD-R uses a standard format, such as ____, which automatically checks for errors and creates a table of contents, used to keep track of each file’s location. a. CD 1000 c. AMC 22 b. ISA 9102 d. ISO 9096 13. A dual-layer, single-sided DVD (Digital Versatile Disc) can hold the equivalent of ____ CDs. a. 3 c. 13 b. 8 d. 19 14. To write data to flash memory, an electric charge is sent through one transistor, called the ____, then through a metal oxide layer, and into a second transistor called the control gate where the charge is stored in a cell until it’s erased. a. parallel port c. pit b. floating gate d. crystalline port 15. A typical transfer rate for a fixed head device is 0.00094 ms per byte. If one complete revolution takes 16.8 ms, how long would it take to read a block of 10 records? a. 8.494 ms c. 16.8 ms b. 9.34 ms d. 84.940 ms 16. For a movable head device, which of the following contributes the most to the total access time for a record? a. seek time c. transfer time b. search time d. delay time 17. At the start of an I/O command, what information passed from the CPU to the channel? a. Channel number b. Address of the physical record to be transferred c. Starting address of a memory buffer from which or into which the record is to be transferred d. All of the above 18. How many bits make up the Channel Status Word (CSW)? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5 19. Without DMA, the ____ is responsible for the physical movement of data between main memory and the device. a. CPU c. memory controller b. bus d. disk 20. The I/O ____ allocates the devices, control units, and channels. a. scheduler c. device handler b. traffic controller d. director 21. Which is the seek strategy in which the request with the track closest to the one being served is the next to be satisfied? a. LOOK c. SSTF b. FCFS d. SCAN 22. ____ is a way to optimize search times by ordering the requests once the read/write heads have been positioned. a. Rotational ordering c. C-SCAN b. SSTF d. LOOK and SCAN 23. Which RAID level uses word parity for error correction? a. 1 c. 5 b. 3 d. 6 24. Which RAID level requires two different parity calculations? a. 2 c. 5 b. 3 d. 6 25. In Linux, the ____ function deallocates any resources that were allocated with the open function. a. close c. release b. shut d. exit Study Guide - Chapter 8: File Management TRUE/FALSE 1. The File Manager is in charge of the system’s physical components, its information resources, and the policies used to store and distribute the files. 2. The computer system defines a file by activating the appropriate secondary storage device and loading the file into memory while updating its records of who is using what file. 3. A record is a group of related bytes that can be identified by the user with a name, type, and size. 4. Directories are listings of filenames and their attributes and are treated in a manner similar to files by the File Manager. 5. Examples of batch commands are CREATE, DELETE, RENAME, and COPY. 6. Without the File Manager every program would need to include instructions to operate all of the different types of devices, and all of the different models within each type. 7. Each volume can only contain a single file. 8. In some operating systems, a subdirectory is created when a user opens an account to access the computer system. 9. Tree structures are inefficient for searching because there are fewer entries in each directory. 10. A file descriptor usually contains only a file name and the directory name in which the file is located. 11. The relative filename is the name that’s selected by the File Manager when the file is created. 12. An extension is usually two or three characters long and is separated from the relative name by a period. 13. When someone creates a folder, the system creates a subdirectory in the current directory or folder. 14. When a user gives a command to modify the contents of a file, it’s actually a command to access folders within the file. 15. It is easy to calculate the location of a variable-length record. 16. Sequential record organization is by far the easiest to implement because records are stored and retrieved serially, one after the other. 17. An indexed sequential file does not have overflow areas. 18. The File Manager keeps track of the empty storage areas by treating them as files. 19. Although noncontiguous allocation schemes eliminate external storage fragmentation and the need for compaction, they don’t support direct access because there’s no easy way to determine the exact location of a specific record. 20. Files cannot be converted from sequential to direct or vice versa. 21. Access methods are dictated by a file’s organization; the most flexibility is allowed with indexed sequential files and the least with sequential. 22. Many systems force users to have their files organized for fixed-length records if the records are to be accessed directly. 23. In a file management system, information is passed from the Device Manager at the top of the hierarchy to the File Manager at the bottom. 24. Data in a fixed-length field might include a short name followed by many blank characters; it can be replaced with a variable-length field and a special code to indicate how many blanks were truncated. 25. Some Linux file types are unique to Linux and some are from other operating systems such as UNIX. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the primary responsibility of the File Manager? a. Keep track of where each file is stored b. Allocate each file when a user has been cleared for access to it, then record its use c. Deallocate the file when the file is to be returned to storage, and communicate its availability to others who may be waiting for it d. All of the above 2. A ____ is a group of related records that contains information to be used by specific application programs to generate reports. a. field c. file b. record group d. directory 3. MODIFY is a specialized ____ command for existing data files that allows for appending records or for rewriting selected records in their original place in the file. a. OPEN c. CLOSE b. WRITE d. READ 4. Which of the following is an interactive command? a. OPEN c. READ b. CLOSE d. COPY 5. Where is the volume descriptor stored on a DVD? a. outermost part b. innermost part c. immediately following the master file directory d. there can be more than one volume description, each one is stored at the beginning of the volume 6. What name do many users use to refer to subdirectories? a. folders c. volumes b. files d. databases 7. What is the point of entry for every file request? a. directory descriptor c. sub file system b. volume descriptor d. MFD 8. What is stored in the file descriptor? a. File location c. Owner b. Date and time of creation d. All of the above 9. What is the purpose of a file extension? a. identify the directory in which the file is stored b. identify the type of file c. identify the file size d. identify the file owner 10. In a networked environment using the OpenVMS Alpha operating system, a file might be named VAX2::USR3:[IMFST.FLYNN]INVENTRY.DOC;7. What is the volume where the file is stored? a. VAX2 c. IMFST b. USR3 d. FLYNN 11. A UNIX or Linux system might identify a file as: /usr/imfst/flynn/inventry.doc. What is the root directory? a. / c. imfst b. usr d. flynn 12. As long as users refer to files in the ____ directory, they can access their files without entering the complete name from the highest level to the lowest. a. root c. home b. working d. default 13. When data is stored in fixed length fields, what happens if a particular piece of data is too long to fit in the field? a. an operating system error b. it is truncated c. the data is broken up and stored in more than one field d. multiple fields are combined to accommodate the data 14. On magnetic disks, files can be organized in one of three ways; what are they? a. indexed direct, indexed indirect, or random b. sequential, indirect, or direct c. sequential, random, or indirect d. sequential, direct, or indexed sequential 15. When using random access files, the program used to store the data follows a set of instructions, called a ____ algorithm, that transforms each key into a number, the record’s logical address. a. hashing c. translation b. grouping d. lookup 16. When using indexed sequential record organization, each entry in the index file contains the ____ and the physical location of the data block where this record, and the records with smaller keys, are stored. a. last record name c. lowest record key b. highest record key d. first record name 17. What is the primary disadvantage of contiguous storage? a. hard to implement and manage b. difficult to find information in files c. file can’t be expanded unless there’s empty space available immediately following it d. inefficient use of space 18. When using noncontiguous storage allocation additions to the file are linked using pointers and are called ____. a. subfiles c. fragments b. extents d. add-ons 19. In noncontiguous storage, linking can take place at the ____ level where each part of the file points to the next one in the sequence. a. subdirectory c. directory b. file d. storage 20. When a file is created, the pointers in the index block are all set to ____. a. the end of the volume c. null b. the beginning of the volume d. zero 21. The File Manager uses the address of the ____ to access the next sequential record. a. first byte read c. first byte in the file b. last byte read d. index record 22. Which formula does the logical file system use to transform a record number to its byte address? a. CBA = (RN – 1) * RL c. CBA = RN / RL b. CBA = RN * RL d. CBA = (RN + 1) * RL 23. Which access control scheme is most commonly used? a. access control matrix c. capability list b. access control list d. capability matrix 24. Which of the following might be an encoded version of ADAMSbbbbbbbbbb? a. ADAMSx10 c. AD2MSb10 b. ASbb d. ADAMSb10 25. In Linux, a ____ is a file that’s used as a communication channel among several processes to exchange data. a. symbolic link c. named pipe b. directory d. special file Study Guide - Chapter 9: Network Organization Concepts TRUE/FALSE 1. A common goal of all networked systems is to provide a convenient way to share resources while controlling users’ access to them. 2. Typically, a host at one site, called the client, has resources that a host at another site, called the server, wants to use. 3. The physical topology of a network may not reflect its logical topology. 4. Star topology permits easy routing. 5. In a ring topology each packet is passed from node to node in both directions, and the destination station copies the data into a local buffer. 6. In a bus topology, devices are physically connected by means of cables that run between them, and the cables pass through a centralized controller mechanism called the bus. 7. The tree topology is a collection of rings. 8. The objective of a hybrid configuration is to select among the strong points of each topology and combine them to meet that system’s communications requirements most effectively. 9. A local area network is generally owned, used, and operated by a single organization and allows computers to communicate directly through a common communication line. 10. A MAN is a high-speed network often configured using a physical ring topology. 11. The IEEE standard 802.11b is not compatible with 802.11g. 12. A WLAN typically poses security vulnerabilities because of its open architecture and the inherent difficulty of keeping out unauthorized intruders. 13. Addressing protocols are normally unrelated to the network topology and geographic location of each site. 14. A router is an internetworking device, primarily software driven, which directs traffic between two different types of LANs or two network segments with different protocol addresses. 15. When using RIP the entire table is updated only when changes have occurred; this decreases internetwork traffic and positively affects the delivery of messages. 16. Circuit switching is a communication model in which a dedicated communication path is established between two hosts. 17. Packet switching is very similar to circuit switching. 18. In the virtual circuit approach, the destination and packet sequence number aren’t added to the information identifying the packet’s message. 19. Round robin is an inefficient technique when there are many nodes transmitting over long periods of time. 20. Ethernet is the most widely known CSMA/CD protocol. 21. A token-passing network always uses a star topology. 22. When using the distributed-queue, dual bus (DQDB) protocol, transmission on each bus consists of a steady stream of fixed-size slots. 23. Bridging between two homogeneous networks occurs at the data link level. 24. Layer 6 of the OSI model is responsible for providing a user-oriented connection service and transferring data over the communication lines. 25. The Internet layer is equivalent to the portion of the data link layer of the OSI model. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Usually, the term “____” indicates a specific location in a network containing one or more computer systems. a. site c. node b. host d. remote 2. The geometric arrangement of connections (cables, wireless, or both) that link the nodes is called a ____. a. layout c. map b. topology d. physical network 3. When deciding which configuration to use, designers should keep in mind four criteria. What are they? a. equipment cost, time to implement, reliability, scalability b. equipment cost, time to implement, throughput, security c. basic cost, communication cost, reliability, user’s environment d. basic cost, scalability, reliability, user’s environment 4. In which networking configuration are hosts connected to each other through a central controller which assumes all responsibility for routing messages to the appropriate host? a. bus c. ring b. spiral d. star 5. When using a ring topology, a ____ can be used to connect to another network. a. star c. router b. central controller d. bridge 6. The ____ is the specific set of rules used to control the flow of messages through the network. a. topology c. system b. protocol d. configuration 7. In which topology are hosts connected to one another in a linear fashion? a. bus c. star b. ring d. gateway 8. When using a bus topology, how many sites can successfully send a message at a time? a. 1 c. 100 b. 10 d. unlimited number 9. A ____ is typically a cluster of personal computers or workstations located in the same general area. a. LAN c. WAN b. MAN d. PAN 10. High-speed LANs have a data rate that varies from 100 megabits per second to more than ____ per second. a. 1000 megabits c. 40 gigabits b. 20 gigabits d. 100 gigabits 11. What is the maximum circumference for a MAN? a. 10 miles c. 100 kilometers b. 50 kilometers d. 200 miles 12. Which of the following is the most vulnerable to security breaches? a. LAN c. WAN b. MAN d. WLAN 13. Consider the address XXXXX@XXXXXX.XXX. What is the host name in this address? a. someone c. lis b. icarus d. pitt 14. A ____ is an internetworking device, primarily software driven, which directs traffic between two different types of LANs or two network segments with different protocol addresses. a. router c. gateway b. bridge d. bus 15. When using RIP, which path is chosen? a. fastest server c. shortest response time b. most secure d. smallest number of hops 16. What is a good example of a circuit-switched network? a. telephone system c. United States Postal Service b. Internet d. All of the above 17. Which of the following is true of packet switching? a. Preferred in low volume networks c. Reduced line efficiency b. Easily overloaded d. Shared by many transmissions 18. In the ____ approach, the destination and sequence number of the packet is added to the information uniquely identifying the message to which the packet belongs; each packet is then handled independently and a route is selected as each packet is accepted into the network. a. physical circuit c. telegram b. datagram d. virtual circuit 19. Carrier sense multiple access (CSMA) is a ____-based protocol. a. round robin c. contention b. reservation d. detection 20. When using CSMA/CD, how long do nodes wait to retransmit after a collision? a. 1 millisecond c. 1 minute b. 1 second d. a random period 21. The distributed-queue, dual bus (DQDB) protocol is intended for use with a dual-bus configuration, where each bus transports data in only one direction, and has been standardized by one of the IEEE committees as part of its ____ standards. a. token ring c. LAN b. MAN d. ISO 22. In the OSI transport protocol model, what is Layer 6? a. physical c. presentation b. network d. application 23. In the OSI model, which layer provides the interface to users and is responsible for formatting user data before passing it to the lower layers for transmission to a remote host? a. 3 c. 6 b. 4 d. 7 24. How many layers are there in the TCP/IP model? a. 2 c. 7 b. 4 d. 10 25. In the TCP/IP model, the ____ layer is equivalent to the transport and session layers of the OSI model. a. host-host c. network access b. Internet d. process/application Study Guide - Chapter 10: Management of Network Functions TRUE/FALSE 1. Networks were created initially to share data. 2. The network operating system handles the interfacing details and coordinates the remote processing. 3. In response to the Write command the File Manager sends a command to the remote server to unlock that file. 4. In a distributed operating system, resources are owned by the local system. 5. To globally manage the network’s entire suite of resources, a DO/S is typically constructed with a replicated kernel operating system. 6. DO/S was developed before NOS. 7. Under a DO/S resources are allocated based on negotiation and compromise among equally important peer sites in the distributed system. 8. Execute-only access allows users to read the page but they’re not allowed to modify it. 9. In a network, the Processor Manager provides the policies and mechanisms to create, delete, abort, name, rename, find, schedule, block, run, and synchronize processes. 10. Each kernel is operated by the application software which, in turn, is directed by the kernel running on the host computer. 11. The arbitration rule is a policy that’s used to resolve conflicts between jobs of different priorities. 12. An object-based DO/S provides for process management through the use of client/server processes synchronized and linked together through messages and ports, also known as channels or pipes. 13. In a distributed system there is a high level of cooperation and sharing of actions and data maintained by the sites when determining which process should be loaded and where it should be run. 14. If a process requests access to a region in memory, the process manager first determines whether the requesting process has been previously granted rights. 15. The kernel environment for distributed systems may have a scheduler but is also capable of providing its own scheduling. 16. The Process Manager has responsibility for the following tasks: creating objects, dispatching objects, scheduling objects, synchronizing operations on objects, communicating among objects, and deleting objects. 17. The DO/S keeps a global accounting of each network device and its availability, maintaining each device’s status record and control block, and distributing this information to all sites. 18. All devices are controlled by a global device manager under a DO/S. 19. One advantage of process-based DO/S is that the processes can be assembled to communicate and synchronize with each other to provide a distributed network of resources, with each process knowing the location of its distributed peers. 20. Data redundancy can make files much faster and easier to read. 21. Deadlock caused by circular waits are not an issue in a distributed operating system. 22. When processes—or objects—need to communicate with each other, the Network Manager links them together through a queue. 23. Networks are becoming increasingly homogeneous. 24. The find-and-copy technique isn’t considered true file sharing because all users wanting access to the data file must copy the file onto their own systems, thereby duplicating the code and wasting space. 25. Most Web browsers display FTP directories using graphical icons to represent available files and directories. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the biggest limitation of a NOS? a. performance issues b. does not take global control over management functions c. unsecure d. prohibitively expensive 2. What is the main difference between a NOS and DO/S? a. view and management of local and global resources b. cost for each installation c. scalability when adding new nodes d. All of the above 3. Which of the following is true of a NOS? a. requests passed from node to node via the NOS b. local resources managed globally c. resources owned by local nodes d. resources owned by global system 4. In a typical NOS environment, a user who wants to run a local process at a remote site must several steps. Which happens first? a. log on to the local network b. instruct the local system to migrate the process or data to the remote site c. send a request to the remote site to schedule the process on its system d. log on to the NOS 5. For each node, the Memory Manager uses a kernel with a(n) ____ algorithm to track the amount of memory that’s available. a. sharing c. turning b. stacking d. paging 6. To control the demand, the Memory Manager handles requests from the process manager to allocate and deallocate space based on ____. a. the priority of each process b. the network’s usage patterns c. the priority of the node generating the request d. a round robin scheduling algorithm 7. When an application tries to access a page that’s not in memory, a ____ occurs and the Memory Manager automatically brings that page into memory. a. page fault c. page allocation b. page request d. demand page 8. Which control exists to make sure processes don’t write to pages that should be read-only? a. Guard-page c. Execute-only b. No-access d. None of the above 9. Typically, the system’s scheduling function has three parts: a ____, a priority function, and an arbitration rule. a. request evaluator c. decision mode b. scheduling request d. request queue 10. A scheduler based on process priorities and durations is an example of which of the theories used to advance job scheduling? a. statistical decision theory c. queuing theory b. estimation theory d. grouping theory 11. In a distributed system there is a high level of cooperation and sharing of actions and data maintained by the sites when determining which process should be loaded and where it should be run. How is this accomplished? a. exchanging messages between site operating systems b. managing all communications within a central controller c. a dispatcher on each machine communicates with the dispatchers on the other sites d. requests are sent to queues 12. When a process reaches a point at which it needs service from an external source, such as an I/O request, it sends a message searching for the service. While it waits for a response, the processor server puts the process in a ____ state. a. STOP c. BUSY b. WAIT d. RESPONSE 13. How do you determine an object’s state in object-based DO/S? a. examine the state property b. look in the object state block c. perform an operation on it d. examine the state table maintained by the DO/S 14. Which component of an object-based DO/S is responsible for process synchronization mechanisms and communication support? a. kernel c. network manager b. central controller d. the responsibility is shared among sites 15. When either the sender and receiver are linked and ready to send and receive the communication is ____. a. asynchronous c. indirect b. synchronous d. direct 16. Once an object has been scheduled, the Process Manager must wait for the kernel dispatcher to pull it out and place it into the ____ state. a. NEXT c. WAIT b. STOP d. RUNNING 17. When a user wants to print a file by executing a print command the user’s File Manager places a copy of the file in the DO/S ____ directory. a. print c. print queue b. spooler d. device 18. In process-based DO/S, special serves called ____ are responsible for accepting requests for service on the individual devices they control, processing each request fairly, providing service to the requestor, and returning to serve others. a. kernels c. spoolers b. guardians d. nodes 19. To control resource clusters as a group, most process-based systems are configured around complex ____, which manage multiple resources or divide the work among subordinate processes. a. resource managers c. scheduling algorithms b. semaphores d. server processes 20. In object-based DO/S, what happens if a local device cannot fulfill a user request? a. it sends the request to a remote peer b. it sends the request to a central controller c. the user must wait until the local device is ready d. an error will occur 21. What is the main function of a DO/S File Manager? a. gather remote files into a single location b. pass requests to local File Managers c. provide transparent mechanisms to work with files d. provide security to distributed files 22. Which file function causes the DO/S File Manager to use a master directory with information about all files stored anywhere on the system and set up a channel to the file? a. Find and Open c. Write b. Read d. Create 23. ____ techniques give the system the ability to perform concurrent reads and writes, as long as the results of these actions don’t jeopardize the contents of the database. a. Query processing c. Location transparency b. Concurrency control d. Data redundancy 24. What is the focus of a NOS? a. providing security c. sharing resources b. managing users d. running programs 25. What program helps users transfer files from one computer to another? a. telnet c. MTP b. SecureTransfer d. FTP Study Guide - Chapter 11: Security and Ethics TRUE/FALSE 1. Any vulnerability at the operating system level opens the entire system to attack. 2. Intrusion detection is an example of a strategy for improving system survivability based on knowledge gained from intrusions. 3. A single computer without access to e-mail or the Internet is easy to protect and has a low risk of attack. 4. Backups become significant when a computer virus infects your system. 5. A gap in system security is always malicious. 6. When nonsynchronized processes access data records and modify some but not all of a record’s fields, it’s called “accidental incomplete modification of data.” 7. Wire tapping is when unauthorized users gain the capability to search through storage, directories, or files for information they aren’t privileged to read. 8. If a password consists of 10 characters, it would take a human about 4.5 years to guess the password if the human makes 1 try each second. 9. A virus is defined as a small program written to alter the way a computer operates, without the permission or knowledge of the user. 10. Some viruses are benign. 11. A master boot record virus infects both the boot record and program files, making them especially difficult to repair. 12. The first widely destructive worm infected more than 6,000 systems over several days in 1988. 13. A logic bomb often spreads unnoticed throughout a network until it goes off and does its damage. 14. There are several guaranteed methods of protecting your system from assault. 15. Software to combat viruses is always preventive. 16. The only way to remove a Trojan horse is to remove the entire body of the malicious program. 17. A firewall sits between the network and the individual computers. 18. One popular authentication tool is Kerberos, a network authentication protocol developed as part of the Athena Project at MIT. 19. The Kerberos protocol does not provide a mechanism for revoking access from users who should no longer have access. 20. The most extreme form of encryption is partial encryption. 21. In public/private key encryption, the private key is a pair of two prime numbers chosen by the person who wants to receive a private message. 22. Spooling is a security threat that relies on cleartext transmission whereby the assailant falsifies the IP addresses of an Internet server by changing the address recorded in packets it sends over the Internet. 23. Default passwords pose unique vulnerabilities because they are widely known among system attackers but are a necessary tool for vendors. 24. In 1977 the IEEE and the Association for Computing Machinery (ACM) issued a standard of ethics for the global computing community 25. A continuing series of security awareness and ethics communications to computer users is more effective than a single announcement. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What are the key properties of a survivable system? a. resistance to attacks b. recognition of attacks and resulting damage c. adaptation and evolution of system defense mechanisms to mitigate future attacks d. All of the above 2. ____ is a component that contributes to system recovery. a. Authentication c. Data replication b. Integrity checking d. Encryption 3. Which of the following has the highest level of risk? a. LAN with Internet b. LAN without Internet c. Single computer without e-mail or Internet d. They all pose the same level of risk 4. What is the name for a system where the entire system is backed up once a week and only the files that were changed that day are backed up daily? a. incremental c. phased b. layered d. recovery-based 5. Errors can occur when data values are incorrectly stored because the field isn’t large enough to hold the numeric value stored there; this is an example of a(n) ____. a. unintentional intrusion c. denial-of-service attack b. malicious attack d. trap door attack 6. How long would it take a computer to crack a password with a length of 3 characters if the computer tries 1 million values per second? a. .000013 seconds c. .008788 seconds b. .000338 seconds d. 58 hours 7. Two methods of active wire tapping are “between lines transmission” and “____.” a. Trojan horse c. browsing b. piggyback entry d. trap doors 8. If your system is in the US, to whom should you report attempts to intrude into the system? a. Federal Bureau of Investigation c. Department of Justice b. Central Intelligence Agency d. Computer Crimes Investigation Agency 9. What type of virus infects data files? a. File infector c. Master boot record b. Boot sector d. Macro 10. What is the immediate result of a worm? a. there is no immediate effect c. data loss b. slower processing time of legitimate work d. computer crash 11. Intruders have been known to capture user passwords by using a ____ to replace the standard login program on the computer with an identical fake login that captures keystrokes. a. worm c. Trojan horse b. masquerade program d. virtual login console 12. When does a logic bomb perform its malicious work? a. immediately upon installation b. at a specified time c. when activated remotely by the person who planted it d. when a specified event takes place 13. What are the characteristics of a blended threat? a. Spreads to other systems using multiple methods. b. Attacks other systems from multiple points. c. Propagates without human intervention. d. All of the above 14. Generally, ____ software to combat viruses compares file sizes (checking for added code when none is expected), looks for replicating instructions, and searches for unusual file activity. a. diagnostic c. reactive b. preventive d. firewall 15. Using ____, the firewall reviews the header information for incoming and outgoing Internet packets to verify that the source address, destination address, and protocol are all correct. a. snooping c. a proxy server b. packet filtering d. anti-virus software 16. A ____ server hides important network information from outsiders by making the network server invisible. a. redirection c. proxy b. blocking d. fire 17. What is the name for the object used by the Kerberos protocol to provide client verification? a. password c. token b. passphrase d. ticket 18. What is another name for total network encryption? a. communications encryption c. complete encryption b. partial encryption d. secure encryption 19. What is a disadvantage of encryption? a. increases the system’s overhead b. difficult for users to have to encrypt and decrypt data c. very costly financially d. All of the above 20. Public/private key encryption relies on the fact that there is no known formula for factoring large numbers greater than ____ digits. a. 75 c. 110 b. 80 d. 150 21. What type of program picks up information as it passes over the Internet and logs it for further analysis and use? a. spoofer c. packet sniffer b. proxy server d. Trojan horse 22. How often should passwords be changed for general users? a. every week c. every 30 to 90 days b. every month d. every year 23. Which of the following is currently a viable alternative to using a password for authentication? a. smart card c. not using a password b. fingerprinting d. retina scan 24. ____ is a form of social engineering whereby an intruder pretends to be a legitimate entity and contacts unwary users asking them to reconfirm their personal and/or financial information. a. Spoofing c. Impersonating b. Phishing d. Acting 25. Who is responsible for monitoring the ethical use of technology? a. Department of Justice c. the global technology community b. Federal Bureau of Investigation d. system owners Study Guide - Chapter 12: System Management TRUE/FALSE 1. Most operating systems were designed to work with a certain piece of hardware, a category of processors, or specific groups of users. 2. The performance of each system resource is independent of any other resource. 3. Any system improvement can be made only after extensive analysis of the needs of the system’s resources, requirements, managers, and users. 4. Increasing the number of processors necessarily increases overhead required to manage multiple jobs among multiple processors. 5. Blocking increases the number of physical I/O requests. 6. Rescheduling requests is a technique that can help optimize I/O times. 7. It is possible to change the turn the reordering algorithm either on or off during normal system operation. 8. If a file is stored noncontiguously and has several sections residing in widely separated cylinders of a disk pack, sequentially accessing all of its records could be a time-consuming task. 9. The location of a volume’s directory on the disk never makes a significant difference in the time it takes to access it. 10. The Network Manager allows a network administrator to monitor the use of individual computers and shared hardware, and ensure compliance with software license agreements. 11. It is easy to measure system efficiency. 12. Capacity is a composite measure that indicates the productivity of the system as a whole. 13. Throughput and capacity can be monitored by either hardware or software. 14. Resource utilization is usually measured as a percentage of time that the resource is idle. 15. Availability in its simplest form means that a unit will be operational and not out of service when a user needs it. 16. If you buy a terminal with an MTBF of 4000 hours, and you plan to use it for 4 hours a day for 20 days a month, then you would expect it to fail once every 5 months 17. A positive feedback loop mechanism monitors the system and, when it becomes too congested, signals the Job Scheduler to slow down the arrival rate of the processes. 18. An algorithm for a positive feedback loop should monitor the effect of new arrivals in two places: the Processor Manager’s control of the CPU and the Device Manager’s read and write operations. 19. Benchmarks are often used by vendors to demonstrate to prospective clients the specific advantages of a new CPU, operating system, compiler, or piece of hardware. 20. In a multiuser environment, computer costs are usually distributed among users based on the budget for each department. 21. By offering reduced rates during off hours some users might be persuaded to run long jobs in batch mode inexpensively overnight instead of interactively during peak hours. 22. Patch management is a simple task that does not require much time or effort. 23. With every patch announcement, system attackers are also armed with this critical information, and they will move quickly to compromise your system. 24. Deploying a patch to a large network is not much more complicated than deploying a patch on a single computer. 25. The advantage of routine patch cycles is that they allow for thorough review of the patch and testing cycles before deployment. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Memory management is intrinsically linked with ____ management when memory is used to buffer data between a very fast processor and slower secondary storage devices. a. device c. process b. disk d. processor 2. Which of the following always occurs when memory management algorithms grow more complex? a. CPU use decreases c. buffers are required b. CPU overhead increases d. system performance improves 3. Which of the following is a result of multiprogramming? a. slower response time c. better use of the CPU b. decreased throughput d. All of the above 4. ____ helps the CPU match the slower speed of I/O devices. a. Prioritizing c. Buffering b. Rescheduling d. Blocking 5. Assume that a system consisting of CPU 1 and Disk Drive A has to access Track 1, Track 9, Track 1, and then Track 9, and that the arm is already located at Track 1. Without reordering, how long does Drive A require to complete the access? CPU1 time for 1000 instructions: 30.0 ms Drive A access speed: 35 ms a. 30 ms c. 70 ms b. 35 ms d. 105 ms 6. If a file is stored ____ and has several sections residing in widely separated cylinders of a disk pack, sequentially accessing all of its records could be a time-consuming task. a. randomly c. contiguously b. noncontiguously d. on several volumes 7. If directories are stored on the ____ track, then, on average, the disk drive arm has to travel farther to access each file than it would if the directories were kept in the ____ tracks. a. outermost, center c. master, slave b. innermost, outermost d. volume, file 8. What tasks are routinely performed by the network manager? a. synchronizes the load among remote processors b. determines message priorities c. tries to select the most efficient communication paths over multiple data communication lines d. All of the above 9. ____ is/are usually measured under steady-state conditions and reflects quantities such as “the number of jobs processed per day” or “the number of online transactions handled per hour.” a. Capacity c. Throughput b. Turnaround time d. Bottlenecks 10. When do bottlenecks develop? a. when the system is underutilized c. when the system is mismanaged b. when resources reach their capacity d. in a deadlocked system 11. With reference to batch jobs, response time is called ____ time. a. turnaround c. batch b. job d. completion 12. Which of the following has the highest availability? a. Windows NT-based c. IBM S/390 (sysplexed) b. IBM S/390 (nonsysplexed) d. AS/400 13. What is the formula used to calculate availability? a. MTBF * (MTBF - MTTR) c. MTBF * (MTBF + MTTR) b. MTBF / (MTBF - MTTR) d. MTBF / (MTBF + MTTR) 14. ____ is similar to availability but it measures the probability that a unit will not fail during a given time period and it’s a function of MTBF. a. Response likelihood c. Scalability b. Reliability d. Operability 15. What is the Job Scheduler instructed to do by a negative feedback loop mechanism when the system becomes congested? a. send the jobs to another processor c. slow down process arrival rate b. suspend processing d. speed up process arrival rate 16. What is a danger of positive feedback loops? a. If too many new jobs are allowed to enter the job stream, the result can be an increase in page faults. b. A single job will be allowed to run to completion and slow down the system. c. It increases the chance of deadlock. d. As more jobs enter, the amount of main memory allocated to each job decreases. 17. What is a disadvantage of software monitoring tools over hardware monitoring tools? a. They are more difficult to install. b. They become part of the system they can distort the results of the analysis. c. They are more expensive. d. They are not secure. 18. When providing accounting for computer use, secondary storage used during the billing period is usually given in terms of ____. a. type of storage device c. bytes of storage b. units of time d. the number of disk tracks allocated 19. What is the disadvantage of maintaining billing records online? a. overhead c. insecure b. security d. unfair 20. What is the primary reasons for the emphasis on software patches for sound system administration? a. need to assure system compliance with government regulations regarding privacy b. need for vigilant security precautions against constantly changing system threats c. financial accountability d. All of the above 21. Who has the overall responsibility of keeping an organization’s patches up-to-date? a. Chief Information Officer c. network administrator b. Chief Security Officer d. depends on the organization 22. What is the first thing that an administrator should do upon notification of a new patch? a. identify the criticality of the patch b. deploy the patch c. test the patch d. ignore the notification and let automatic updates handle the patch 23. What is the first step in testing a patch? a. test your contingency plans to uninstall the patch b. check to see if the patched software performs its assigned tasks c. test to see if the system reboots after the patch is installed d. test to see whether the patch disrupts normal system operations 24. What is needed to achieve success in deploying a patch to a large network? a. automated patch installation software b. an accurate inventory of all hardware and software on those computers that need the patch c. external patch management hardware d. launching the deployment on all the computers at the same time 25. What are the two groups that deployment software can be divided into? a. structured and unstructured c. automatic and manual b. secure and insecure d. agent-based and agentless Chapter 13 Study Guide: UNIX Operating System TRUE/FALSE 1. While Linux and UNIX are different operating systems, they strongly resemble each other in many ways. 2. The portability of UNIX is attributed to the fact that most of it is written in a high-level language, C++. 3. UNIX has grown to become one of the most widely used operating systems in history. 4. By 1990, there were about two dozen versions of UNIX, among them AT&T’s UNIX System V. 5. In 1991, AT&T’s Unix System Laboratories developed System V release 6, which incorporated almost all of the features found in System V release 3. 6. The immediate goals for UNIX were twofold, to develop an operating system that would support software development, and to keep its algorithms as simple as possible. 7. UNIX can be mastered by novice programmers in a matter of weeks. 8. UNIX Version 4 was hardware independent. 9. Swapping uses a round robin policy. 10. Demand paging requires more complicated hardware configurations; it increases the system overhead and under heavy loads might lead to thrashing. 11. The UNIX kernel does not reside in memory permanently, it can be swapped out when needed to provide more space for applications. 12. The Processor Manager of a UNIX system kernel handles the allocation of the CPU, process scheduling, and the satisfaction of process requests. 13. The UNIX process scheduling algorithm picks the process that will run in the shortest amount of time to be run first. 14. In UNIX the process table is set up when the process is created and is deleted when the process terminates. 15. UNIX is a true multitasking operating system. 16. The system command, split, splits a program into two copies, which are both running from the statement after the command. 17. The exec family of commands—execl, execv, execls, execlp and execvp—is used to start execution of a new program from another program. 18. UNIX is designed to ensure device dependence to the applications running under it. 19. The UNIX I/O system is divided into the “block I/O” system and the “interactive I/O” system. 20. Each physical device in UNIX is identified by a minor device number, a major device number, and a contact address. 21. UNIX stores files as sequences of bytes and does not impose any structure on them. 22. The UNIX file management system organizes the disk into blocks of 1024 bytes each and divides the disk into four basic regions. 23. The second column in a directory listing indicates the number of links, also known as the number of aliases, that refer to the same physical file. 24. The C shell is usually available as an unbundled product. 25. A pipe is the operating system’s way to connect the output from one program to the input of another without the need for temporary or intermediate files. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A disadvantage of Linux and UNIX is ____. a. They are device dependent. b. Programmers do not like using the interface. c. It is difficult for novice users to learn. d. It is not portable from smaller to larger systems. 2. the first official version of UNIX introduced was in ____. a. 1969 c. 1973 b. 1971 d. 1981 3. The command ____ is used to find a specified string of characters in a file. a. cp c. grep b. mv d. ls 4. ____ is a family of IEEE standards that define a portable operating system interface to enhance the portability of programs from one operating system to another. a. POSIX c. LINUX b. POSFIX d. STD 5. For multiprogramming systems, most UNIX operating systems use either ____ management techniques. a. indirect paging and hot swapping c. virtual memory and swapping b. simple memory and paging d. swapping or demand paging memory 6. UNIX uses a ____ to keep track of which processes are using which program code, and the memory is not released until the program code is no longer needed. a. pointer c. binary file b. text table d. database 7. UNIX uses the ____ page replacement algorithm. a. least recently used c. priority b. round robin d. oldest first 8. When the UNIX Processor Manager is deciding which process from the READY queue will be loaded into memory to be run first, it chooses the process ____. a. with the lowest priority b. which has been waiting longest c. with the lowest amount of time remaining to execute d. with the longest time spent on the secondary storage 9. In UNIX, a ____ table is allocated to each active process. a. process c. user b. subtext d. database 10. A ____ may occur if an event happens during the process’s transition between deciding to wait for the event and entering the WAIT state. a. race c. starvation b. deadlock d. synchronization problem 11. The ____ command allows the programmer to synchronize process execution by suspending the parent until the child is finished. a. exec c. wait b. fork d. pause 12. There is no return from a successful ____ call. a. nest c. duplicate b. exec d. fork 13. Subroutines that work with the operating system to supervise the transmission of data between main memory and a peripheral unit are called the ____. a. device controllers c. control drivers b. device drivers d. controllers 14. In UNIX, the file ____ contains the parameters that control resources such as the number of internal buffers for the kernel and the size of the swap space. a. config.sys c. ctrl.conf b. conf.ini d. conf.c 15. When using a terminal, as the user types in each character, it is collected in the ____ queue. a. raw input c. character b. canonical input d. buffer 16. ____ are the device drivers that provide the interface to I/O hardware. a. Dev files c. Special files b. Dev drivers d. Store files 17. The UNIX file management system organizes the disk into blocks of 512 bytes each and divides the disk into four basic regions, the first of which is ____. a. contains the size of the disk and the boundaries of the other regions b. free blocks available for file storage c. a list of file definitions d. reserved for booting 18. Using ____ in a path name will move you upward in the hierarchy. a. / c. . b. .. d. ^ 19. The maximum number of bytes that can be allocated to a single file in UNIX is ____. a. 128 c. 2,113,674 b. 16,522 d. 1,082,201,088 20. The ____ command is used to delete a file or directory. a. rm c. del b. mv d. erase 21. The following command ____ , will copy the contents of chapt1 and chapt2 into a file named sectiona. a. chapt1, chapt2 < sectiona b. cp chapt1 sectiona, cp chapt2 sectiona c. cat chapt1 chapt2 > sectiona d. ls chapt1, chapt2, sectiona 22. The following command ____ will store the names of all users logged on to the system in the file called temporary. a. ls user temporary c. users > temporary b. who > temporary d. view users temporary 23. A ____ is several programs simultaneously processing the same I/O stream. a. pipeline c. filter b. pipe d. redirect 24. If a program’s execution is expected to take a long time, you can start its execution and then log off the system without having to wait for it to finish by using the command ____. a. fin c. keep b. finproc d. nohup 25. The command ____ is used to lower the priority of a process. a. lp c. nice b. set priority d. low Chapter 14 Study Guide: MS-DOS Operating System TRUE/FALSE 1. MS-DOS was written for a single family of microprocessors. 2. MS-DOS is the successor of the IBM operating system. 3. Version 3.2 of MS-DOS supported token ring and 3 1/2 inch disks. 4. Later versions of MS-DOS are not compatible with earlier versions. 5. MS-DOS was designed to accommodate a single novice user in a single-process environment. 6. The top layer of MS-DOS is the kernel. 7. The layer at the bottom of MS-DOS is BIOS (Basic Input/Output System). 8. The DOS kernel is a proprietary program supplied by Microsoft Corporation that implements MS-DOS. 9. The MS-DOS command processor is interpretive. 10. In its heyday, MS-DOS ran an enormous collection of software packages, making it difficult to discontinue this operating system. 11. In RAM main memory, the interrupt vectors are located in high-addressable memory and the COMMAND.COM overlay is located in low-addressable memory. 12. An interrupt vector specifies where the interrupt handler program for a specific interrupt type is located. 13. If a program that is already running needs more memory, such as for additional I/O buffers, the Memory Manager checks to see whether enough memory remains. 14. A well-designed application program only releases memory when it stops running. 15. Interrupt handlers are a crucial part of the system. 16. Device channels are a part of MS-DOS. 17. You can write your own device driver for MS-DOS. 18. DOS is not case-sensitive so filenames and commands can be entered in uppercase, lowercase, or a combination of both. 19. When the user is working in a directory or subdirectory, it is called the working directory and any file in that directory can be accessed by its relative name. 20. When a disk is formatted (using the FORMAT command), its tracks are divided into sectors of 1024 bytes each. 21. Each subdirectory can contain its own subdirectories and/or files. 22. MS-DOS looks at data in a disk file as a continuous string of bytes. 23. The MS-DOS command LIST displays the text file on the screen. 24. A commonly used filter is SORT, which accepts input from the keyboard, sorts that data, and displays it on the screen. 25. The DIR command displays directories and subdirectories in a hierarchical and indented list. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ____ was initially responsible for the popularity of MS-DOS. a. IBM c. HP b. Sun d. Apple 2. The directories that were supported by version 1.0 of MS-DOS number ____. a. 0 c. 10 b. 1 d. 100 3. Although MS-DOS is no longer widely used, many Windows operating systems offer a ____ to allow users who are comfortable with this operating system to use some DOS-like commands in a window. a. DOS-compatible operating system named MD-DOS b. version of DOS called WinDOS c. DOS emulator d. shell 4. The portion of DOS that users interact with is ____. a. BIOS c. DOS Kernel b. DOS processor d. COMMAND.COM 5. The DOS kernel is read into memory at initialization time from the ____ file residing in the boot disk. a. MSDOS.SYS c. DOSK.COM b. MSKernel.DOS d. COMMAND.COM 6. The ____ operating system was developed by IBM and Microsoft to replace MS-DOS. a. Windows c. DOS2 b. OS/2 d. Linux 7. The Memory Manager uses a ____ memory allocation scheme. a. best fit first c. first-fit b. next fit first d. last-fit 8. ____ is usually very small in size and contains a program, a section of BIOS, with the sole task of starting up the system. a. REM c. RAM b. Bootstrapping d. ROM 9. The ____ version of MS-DOS began to support dynamic memory allocation. a. 1.0 c. 2.0 b. 1.5 d. 5.5 10. Programs with the ____ extension are given all of the TPA, whether or not they need it. a. BAT c. EXE b. COM d. RUN 11. When a block is formed its first five bytes contain information about the block, the ____ is contained in byte zero if it is the last block. a. ASCII 90h c. number 0 b. ASCII 77h d. number of paragraphs in the block 12. If a block contains four paragraphs and is the first of two blocks, then its code would be ____. a. 7700004h c. 90000000004h b. 7700000004h d. 900000000030h 13. A personal computer has ____ interrupts and interrupt handlers. a. 56 c. 256 b. 128 d. 1024 14. ____ interrupts are generated by certain events occurring during a program’s execution, such as division by zero. a. Internal hardware c. Software b. External hardware d. Exception 15. A ____ interrupt handler’s function is to terminate a process without releasing its memory, thus providing memory-resident programming facilities. a. Program Status Word c. Pause and Wait b. Terminate and Stay Resident d. Stop and Start 16. BIOS is stored in ____. a. ROM only c. ROM and RAM b. RAM only d. CMOS 17. The name for a device driver that can be incorporated into the operating system as needed without having to patch or change the existing operating system is ____. a. installable c. plug-and-play b. configurable d. hot-loadable 18. In the MS-DOS file management scheme, the symbol ____ follows the drive name. a. ; c. > b. : d. # 19. A file’s relative name consists of its ____. a. working directory, primary name, and extension b. parent directory, primary name, and extension c. drive letter, parent directory, primary name, and extension d. primary name and extension 20. There are ____ disk sectors grouped into a cluster. a. two c. eight b. two to eight d. eight to ten 21. Every time the CPU is powered up or is reset, the commands in the ____ file are executed automatically by the system. a. AUTOEXEC.BAT c. INIT.EXE b. INIT.COM d. COMMAND.COM 22. The ____ contains status information about the disk’s sectors that are allocated, free, and can’t be allocated because of formatting errors. a. Directory Manager c. File Allocation Table b. File System Information Block d. File Status Table 23. ____ is the redirection symbol? a. < c. >> b. > d. & 24. A(n) ____ can cause the standard output from one command to be used as standard input to another command; its symbol is a vertical bar (|). a. output transfer c. filter b. redirect d. pipe 25. The ____ command allows the user to set up a series of files for printing while freeing up COMMAND.COM to accept other commands. a. PRINT c. LPR b. SPOOL d. PRT Chapter 15 Study Guide: Windows Operating Systems TRUE/FALSE 1. The first Windows application was not a true operating system. 2. Windows XP was the last Windows operating system built on the Windows 95 code. 3. In 1999, Microsoft changed the operating system’s name from Windows NT to Windows 2000. 4. To ensure the integrity of the Windows operating system code the designers separated operating system functions into a privileged executive process and a set of nonprivileged processes called “protected subsystems.” 5. Much of Windows is written in assembly language, a programming language that’s standardized and readily available. 6. Windows provides execution environments for applications that are different from its primary programming interface. 7. To give fast response times when dealing with CPU-bound applications, all that is required is fast hardware. 8. The lower half of the virtual address space is accessible only to kernel-mode processes. 9. A replacement policy determines which virtual page must be removed from memory to make room for a new page. 10. Windows is a non-preemptive-multitasking, multithreaded operating system. 11. Multithreading is advantageous when doing database searches because data is retrieved faster when the system has several threads of execution that are searching an array simultaneously, especially if each thread has its own CPU. 12. The I/O Manager allows device drivers and file systems, which it perceives as device drivers, to be loaded dynamically based on the needs of the user. 13. A driver object can only have one device connected to it. 14. In the Windows operating systems, almost all low-level I/O operations are asynchronous. 15. The primary file handling concept in current versions of Windows is the virtual file. 16. The Open Mode attribute for a file indicates whether other callers can open the file for read, write, or delete operations while this caller is using it. 17. At the operating system level, file mapping is typically used for file caching, loading, and running executable programs. 18. The SMB protocol is a high-level specification for formatting messages to be sent across the network and correlates to the application layer (layer 7), and the presentation layer (layer 6) of the OSI model. 19. LDAP is the hierarchical replicated naming service on which the Internet is built. 20. One of the biggest concerns about Windows operating systems in general is the need for aggressive patch management to combat the many viruses and worms that target these systems. 21. Effective distributed security requires an authentication mechanism that allows a server to prove its identity to a client. 22. Kerberos provides authentication, data integrity, and data privacy. 23. A standard utility program called Internet Explorer contains directory and file display tools and a file finding tool. 24. For users who are faster with the keyboard than with a pointing device, Windows provides many keyboard shortcuts. 25. Windows does not provide much support for users who do not speak and read English. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The first widely adopted Windows product, ____, featured a standardized look and feel, similar to the one made popular by Apple’s Macintosh computer. a. Win
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