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Dr. Amit
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2) In a market economy the distribution of output will be determined

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2) In a market economy the distribution of output will be determined primarily by: A. the quantities and prices of the resources that households supply. B. a social consensus as to what distribution of income is most equitable. C. government regulations that provide a minimum income for all. D. consumer needs and preferences. 3) In a competitive market economy firms will select the least-cost production technique because: A. to do so will maximize the firms' profits. B. "dollar voting" by consumers mandates such a choice. C. this will prevent new firms from entering the industry. D. such choices will result in the full employment of available resources. 4) If price is above the equilibrium level, competition among sellers to reduce the resulting: A. shortage will decrease quantity demanded and increase quantity supplied. B. shortage will increase quantity demanded and decrease quantity supplied. C. surplus will decrease quantity demanded and increase quantity supplied. D. surplus will
Submitted: 4 years ago.
Category: Homework
Expert:  Dr. Amit replied 4 years ago.
Hello and welcome to JustAnswer.

Your last 4th question seems to have cut off in the end.
Can you kindly complete it so that i can help you with the answers.
Thanks
Customer: replied 4 years ago.

oh my....i guess it cut off all of my questions.

 

 

Expert:  Dr. Amit replied 4 years ago.
Ok. how many questions are there?
Can you post all of them, in complete? Let me see them first.
Thanks
Customer: replied 4 years ago.
Suppose that the price of peanuts falls from $3 to $2 per bushel and that, as a result, the total revenue received by peanut farmers changes from $16 to $14 billion. Thus:
A.the demand for peanuts is inelastic.
B.the demand curve for peanuts has shifted to the right.
C.no inference can be made as to the elasticity of demand for peanuts.
D.the demand for peanuts is elastic.
2) In a competitive market economy firms will select the least-cost production technique because:
A.to do so will maximize the firms' profits.
B.this will prevent new firms from entering the industry.
C."dollar voting" by consumers mandates such a choice.
D.such choices will result in the full employment of available resources.
3) In a market economy the distribution of output will be determined primarily by:
A.the quantities and prices of the resources that households supply.
B.government regulations that provide a minimum income for all.
C.a social consensus as to what distribution of income is most equitable.
D.consumer needs and preferences.
4) Suppose that in the clothing market, production costs have fallen, but the equilibrium price and quantity purchased have both increased. Based on this information we can conclude that:
A.Demand for clothing has grown faster than the supply of clothing.
B.The supply of and demand for clothing have grown by the same proportion.
C.There is no way to determine what has happened to supply and demand with this information.
D.The supply of clothing has grown faster than the demand for clothing.
5) If price is above the equilibrium level, competition among sellers to reduce the resulting:
A.shortage will increase quantity demanded and decrease quantity supplied.
B.surplus will increase quantity demanded and decrease quantity supplied.
C.surplus will decrease quantity demanded and increase quantity supplied.
D.shortage will decrease quantity demanded and increase quantity supplied.
6) Camille's Creations and Julia's Jewels both sell beads in a competitive market. If at the market price of $5, both are running out of beads to sell (they can't keep up with the quantity demanded at that price), then we would expect both Camille's and Julia's to:
A.lower their price and increase their quantity supplied.
B.raise their price and reduce their quantity supplied.
C.lower their price and reduce their quantity supplied.
D.raise their price and increase their quantity supplied.
If a firm is selling in an imperfectly competitive product market, then:
A.the marginal products of successive workers can be sold at a constant price.
B.A. average product will be less than marginal product for any number of workers hired.
C.the marginal products of successive workers can be sold at higher prices.
D.the marginal products of successive workers must be sold at lower prices.
8) A firm is producing an output such that the benefit from one more unit is more than the cost of producing that additional unit. This means the firm is:
A.producing an inefficient output, but we cannot say whether output should be increased or decreased.
B.producing more output than allocative efficiency requires.
C.achieving productive efficiency.
D.producing less output than allocative efficiency requires.
9) If a profit-seeking competitive firm is producing its profit-maximizing output and its total fixed costs fall by 25 percent, the firm should:
A.reduce its output.
B.increase its output.
C.not change its output.
D.use more labor and less capital to produce a larger output.
10) In which of the following industries are economies of scale exhausted at relatively low levels of output?
A.concrete mixing
B.newspaper printing
C.automobile manufacturing
D.aircraft production
11) Which of the following represents a long-run adjustment?
A.a steel manufacturer cuts back on its purchases of coke and iron ore
B.a supermarket hires four additional clerks
C.unable to meet foreign competition, a U.S. watch manufacturer sells one of its branch plants
D.a farmer uses an extra dose of fertilizer on his corn crop
12) What do wages paid to blue-collar workers, interest paid on a bank loan, forgone interest, and the purchase of component parts have in common?
A.None are either implicit or explicit costs.
B.All are opportunity costs.
C.All are implicit costs.
D.All are explicit costs.
13) A firm can hire six workers at a wage rate of $8 per hour but must pay $9 per hour to all of its employees to attract a seventh worker. The marginal wage cost of the seventh worker is:
A.$15.
B.$21.
C.$10.
D.$9.
14) Paying an above-equilibrium wage rate might reduce unit labor costs by:
A.increasing voluntary worker turnover.
B.increasing the supply of labor.
C.increasing the cost to workers of being fired for shirking.
D.permitting the firm to attract lower-quality labor.
15) If the wage rate increases:
A.a purely competitive producer will hire less labor, but an imperfectly competitive producer will not.
B.a purely competitive and an imperfectly competitive producer will both hire less labor.
C.an imperfectly competitive producer will hire less labor, but a purely competitive producer will not.
D.an imperfectly competitive producer may find it profitable to hire either more or less labor.
In the long-run, a profit-maximizing monopolistically competitive firm sets it price:
A.above marginal cost.
B.equal to marginal revenue.
C.below marginal cost.
D.equal to marginal cost.
17) Price is constant or given to the individual firm selling in a purely competitive market because:
A.the firm's demand curve is downsloping.
B.each seller supplies a negligible fraction of total supply.
C.of product differentiation reinforced by extensive advertising.
D.there are no good substitutes for its product.
18) Oligopoly is difficult to analyze primarily because:
A.the number of firms is too large to make collusion understandable.
B.output may be either homogenous or differentiated.
C.the price and output decisions of any one firm depend on the reactions of its rivals.
D.neither allocative nor productive efficiency is achieved.
19) Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
A.of barriers to entry.
B.of advertising.
C.marginal revenue is constant as sales increase.
D.of rising average fixed costs.
20) Which of the following is not a possible source of natural monopoly?
A.greater use of specialized inputs
B.large-scale network effects
C.simultaneous consumption
D.rent-seeking behavior
21) One would expect that collusion among oligopolistic producers would be easiest to achieve in which of the following cases?
A.a rather large number of firms producing a homogeneous product
B.a rather large number of firms producing a differentiated product
C.a very small number of firms producing a differentiated product
D.a very small number of firms producing a homogeneous product
22) A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
A.product differentiation.
B.the likelihood of collusion.
C.high entry barriers.
D.mutual interdependence in decision making.
23) Suppose that an industry is characterized by a few firms and price leadership. We would expect that:
A.price would equal marginal cost.
B.marginal revenue would exceed marginal cost.
C.price would equal average total cost.
D.price would exceed both marginal cost and average total cost.
24) Assume the several manufacturers of ceramic tile in a city reach a verbal agreement to establish the price of their product at 55 cents per tile. This best describes:
A.multiproduct pricing.
B.price leadership.
C.a cartel.
D.an informal understanding.
25) The profit-maximizing output of a pure monopoly is economically inefficient because in equilibrium:
A.price equals minimum average total cost.
B.price exceeds marginal cost.
C.marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
D.marginal cost exceeds price.
26) Those who contend that oligopolists are less likely than more competitive firms to engage in R&D say that:
A.Oligopolists have little incentive to introduce costly new technology and produce new products when they currently are earning large economic profit using existing technology and selling existing products.
B.the large size of oligopolists' R&D departments allow them to use very specialized, expensive R&D equipment and employ teams of specialized researchers.
C.the undistributed profits of oligopolists give them a source of readily available, relatively low cost funds for financing R & D.
D.entry barriers enable oligopolists to sustain the profits they gain from innovation.
27) Other things equal, a price discriminating monopolist will:
A.realize a smaller economic profit than a nondiscriminating monopolist.
B.produce a smaller output than a nondiscriminating monopolist.
C.produce a larger output than a nondiscriminating monopolist.
D.produce the same output as a nondiscriminating monopolist.
The industries or sectors of the economy in which business cycle fluctuations tend to affect output the most are:
A.capital goods and durable consumer goods.
B.services and nondurable consumer goods.
C.clothing and education.
D.military goods and capital goods.
29) Inflation is undesirable because it:
A.reduces everyone's standard of living.
B.invariably leads to hyperinflation.
C.usually is accompanied by declining real GDP.
D.arbitrarily redistributes real income and wealth.
30) If the U.S. unemployment rate is 9 percent, we can infer that:
A.actual GDP is equal to potential GDP.
B.potential GDP is in excess of actual GDP.
C.actual GDP is in excess of potential GDP.
D.the economy is in the expansion phase of the business cycle.
31) Given the annual rate of inflation, the "rule of 70" allows one to:
A.calculate the number of years required for the price level to double.
B.calculate the accompanying rate of unemployment.
C.determine when the value of a real asset will approach zero.
D.determine whether the inflation is demand-pull or cost-push.
32) Suppose the price level is fixed, the MPC is .5, and the GDP gap is a negative $100 billion. To achieve full-employment output (exactly), government should:
A.increase government expenditures by $50 billion.
B.increase government expenditures by $100 billion.
C.reduce taxes by $200 billion.
D.reduce taxes by $50 billion.
33) Expansionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
A.necessarily expands the size of government.
B.involves an expansion of the nation's money supply.
C.is designed to expand real GDP.
D.is aimed at achieving greater price stability.
In a fractional reserve banking system:
A.the monetary system must be backed by gold.
B.bank panics cannot occur.
C.the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.
D.banks can create money through the lending process.
35) Assume the Standard Internet Company negotiates a loan for $5,000 from the Metro National Bank and receives a checkable deposit for that amount in exchange for its promissory note (IOU). As a result of this transaction:
A.the supply of money declines by the amount of the loan.
B.the supply of money is increased by $5,000.
C.the Metro Bank acquires reserves from other banks.
D.a claim has been "demonetized."
36) Other things equal, a 10 percent decrease in corporate income taxes will:
A.have no effect on the location of the investment-demand curve.
B.decrease the market price of real capital goods.
C.shift the investment-demand curve to the left.
D.shift the investment-demand curve to the right.
37) Exchange rates are determined in the long-run by:
A.Financial asset pricing.
B.Purchasing power parity.
C.Real growth rates.
D.Interest rate differentials.
38) Suppose that US prices rise 4 percent over the next year while prices in Mexico rise 6%. According to the purchasing power parity theory of exchange rates, what should happen to the exchange rate between the dollar and the peso?
A.The dollar will be revalued.
B.The peso should depreciate.
C.The peso should appreciate.
D.The dollar should depreciate.
39) An increase in interest rates in the United States will lead to:
A.A decrease in the demand for dollar-denominated financial assets.
B.Capital inflows into the United States.
C.Outflows of capital from the United States.
D.Depreciation of the dollar.
Customer: replied 4 years ago.
Suppose that the price of peanuts falls from $3 to $2 per bushel and that, as a result, the total revenue received by peanut farmers changes from $16 to $14 billion. Thus:
A.the demand for peanuts is inelastic.
B.the demand curve for peanuts has shifted to the right.
C.no inference can be made as to the elasticity of demand for peanuts.
D.the demand for peanuts is elastic.
2) In a competitive market economy firms will select the least-cost production technique because:
A.to do so will maximize the firms' profits.
B.this will prevent new firms from entering the industry.
C."dollar voting" by consumers mandates such a choice.
D.such choices will result in the full employment of available resources.
3) In a market economy the distribution of output will be determined primarily by:
A.the quantities and prices of the resources that households supply.
B.government regulations that provide a minimum income for all.
C.a social consensus as to what distribution of income is most equitable.
D.consumer needs and preferences.
4) Suppose that in the clothing market, production costs have fallen, but the equilibrium price and quantity purchased have both increased. Based on this information we can conclude that:
A.Demand for clothing has grown faster than the supply of clothing.
B.The supply of and demand for clothing have grown by the same proportion.
C.There is no way to determine what has happened to supply and demand with this information.
D.The supply of clothing has grown faster than the demand for clothing.
5) If price is above the equilibrium level, competition among sellers to reduce the resulting:
A.shortage will increase quantity demanded and decrease quantity supplied.
B.surplus will increase quantity demanded and decrease quantity supplied.
C.surplus will decrease quantity demanded and increase quantity supplied.
D.shortage will decrease quantity demanded and increase quantity supplied.
6) Camille's Creations and Julia's Jewels both sell beads in a competitive market. If at the market price of $5, both are running out of beads to sell (they can't keep up with the quantity demanded at that price), then we would expect both Camille's and Julia's to:
A.lower their price and increase their quantity supplied.
B.raise their price and reduce their quantity supplied.
C.lower their price and reduce their quantity supplied.
D.raise their price and increase their quantity supplied.
If a firm is selling in an imperfectly competitive product market, then:
A.the marginal products of successive workers can be sold at a constant price.
B.A. average product will be less than marginal product for any number of workers hired.
C.the marginal products of successive workers can be sold at higher prices.
D.the marginal products of successive workers must be sold at lower prices.
8) A firm is producing an output such that the benefit from one more unit is more than the cost of producing that additional unit. This means the firm is:
A.producing an inefficient output, but we cannot say whether output should be increased or decreased.
B.producing more output than allocative efficiency requires.
C.achieving productive efficiency.
D.producing less output than allocative efficiency requires.
9) If a profit-seeking competitive firm is producing its profit-maximizing output and its total fixed costs fall by 25 percent, the firm should:
A.reduce its output.
B.increase its output.
C.not change its output.
D.use more labor and less capital to produce a larger output.
10) In which of the following industries are economies of scale exhausted at relatively low levels of output?
A.concrete mixing
B.newspaper printing
C.automobile manufacturing
D.aircraft production
11) Which of the following represents a long-run adjustment?
A.a steel manufacturer cuts back on its purchases of coke and iron ore
B.a supermarket hires four additional clerks
C.unable to meet foreign competition, a U.S. watch manufacturer sells one of its branch plants
D.a farmer uses an extra dose of fertilizer on his corn crop
12) What do wages paid to blue-collar workers, interest paid on a bank loan, forgone interest, and the purchase of component parts have in common?
A.None are either implicit or explicit costs.
B.All are opportunity costs.
C.All are implicit costs.
D.All are explicit costs.
13) A firm can hire six workers at a wage rate of $8 per hour but must pay $9 per hour to all of its employees to attract a seventh worker. The marginal wage cost of the seventh worker is:
A.$15.
B.$21.
C.$10.
D.$9.
14) Paying an above-equilibrium wage rate might reduce unit labor costs by:
A.increasing voluntary worker turnover.
B.increasing the supply of labor.
C.increasing the cost to workers of being fired for shirking.
D.permitting the firm to attract lower-quality labor.
15) If the wage rate increases:
A.a purely competitive producer will hire less labor, but an imperfectly competitive producer will not.
B.a purely competitive and an imperfectly competitive producer will both hire less labor.
C.an imperfectly competitive producer will hire less labor, but a purely competitive producer will not.
D.an imperfectly competitive producer may find it profitable to hire either more or less labor.
In the long-run, a profit-maximizing monopolistically competitive firm sets it price:
A.above marginal cost.
B.equal to marginal revenue.
C.below marginal cost.
D.equal to marginal cost.
17) Price is constant or given to the individual firm selling in a purely competitive market because:
A.the firm's demand curve is downsloping.
B.each seller supplies a negligible fraction of total supply.
C.of product differentiation reinforced by extensive advertising.
D.there are no good substitutes for its product.
18) Oligopoly is difficult to analyze primarily because:
A.the number of firms is too large to make collusion understandable.
B.output may be either homogenous or differentiated.
C.the price and output decisions of any one firm depend on the reactions of its rivals.
D.neither allocative nor productive efficiency is achieved.
19) Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
A.of barriers to entry.
B.of advertising.
C.marginal revenue is constant as sales increase.
D.of rising average fixed costs.
20) Which of the following is not a possible source of natural monopoly?
A.greater use of specialized inputs
B.large-scale network effects
C.simultaneous consumption
D.rent-seeking behavior
21) One would expect that collusion among oligopolistic producers would be easiest to achieve in which of the following cases?
A.a rather large number of firms producing a homogeneous product
B.a rather large number of firms producing a differentiated product
C.a very small number of firms producing a differentiated product
D.a very small number of firms producing a homogeneous product
22) A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
A.product differentiation.
B.the likelihood of collusion.
C.high entry barriers.
D.mutual interdependence in decision making.
23) Suppose that an industry is characterized by a few firms and price leadership. We would expect that:
A.price would equal marginal cost.
B.marginal revenue would exceed marginal cost.
C.price would equal average total cost.
D.price would exceed both marginal cost and average total cost.
24) Assume the several manufacturers of ceramic tile in a city reach a verbal agreement to establish the price of their product at 55 cents per tile. This best describes:
A.multiproduct pricing.
B.price leadership.
C.a cartel.
D.an informal understanding.
25) The profit-maximizing output of a pure monopoly is economically inefficient because in equilibrium:
A.price equals minimum average total cost.
B.price exceeds marginal cost.
C.marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
D.marginal cost exceeds price.
26) Those who contend that oligopolists are less likely than more competitive firms to engage in R&D say that:
A.Oligopolists have little incentive to introduce costly new technology and produce new products when they currently are earning large economic profit using existing technology and selling existing products.
B.the large size of oligopolists' R&D departments allow them to use very specialized, expensive R&D equipment and employ teams of specialized researchers.
C.the undistributed profits of oligopolists give them a source of readily available, relatively low cost funds for financing R & D.
D.entry barriers enable oligopolists to sustain the profits they gain from innovation.
27) Other things equal, a price discriminating monopolist will:
A.realize a smaller economic profit than a nondiscriminating monopolist.
B.produce a smaller output than a nondiscriminating monopolist.
C.produce a larger output than a nondiscriminating monopolist.
D.produce the same output as a nondiscriminating monopolist.
The industries or sectors of the economy in which business cycle fluctuations tend to affect output the most are:
A.capital goods and durable consumer goods.
B.services and nondurable consumer goods.
C.clothing and education.
D.military goods and capital goods.
29) Inflation is undesirable because it:
A.reduces everyone's standard of living.
B.invariably leads to hyperinflation.
C.usually is accompanied by declining real GDP.
D.arbitrarily redistributes real income and wealth.
30) If the U.S. unemployment rate is 9 percent, we can infer that:
A.actual GDP is equal to potential GDP.
B.potential GDP is in excess of actual GDP.
C.actual GDP is in excess of potential GDP.
D.the economy is in the expansion phase of the business cycle.
31) Given the annual rate of inflation, the "rule of 70" allows one to:
A.calculate the number of years required for the price level to double.
B.calculate the accompanying rate of unemployment.
C.determine when the value of a real asset will approach zero.
D.determine whether the inflation is demand-pull or cost-push.
32) Suppose the price level is fixed, the MPC is .5, and the GDP gap is a negative $100 billion. To achieve full-employment output (exactly), government should:
A.increase government expenditures by $50 billion.
B.increase government expenditures by $100 billion.
C.reduce taxes by $200 billion.
D.reduce taxes by $50 billion.
33) Expansionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
A.necessarily expands the size of government.
B.involves an expansion of the nation's money supply.
C.is designed to expand real GDP.
D.is aimed at achieving greater price stability.
In a fractional reserve banking system:
A.the monetary system must be backed by gold.
B.bank panics cannot occur.
C.the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.
D.banks can create money through the lending process.
35) Assume the Standard Internet Company negotiates a loan for $5,000 from the Metro National Bank and receives a checkable deposit for that amount in exchange for its promissory note (IOU). As a result of this transaction:
A.the supply of money declines by the amount of the loan.
B.the supply of money is increased by $5,000.
C.the Metro Bank acquires reserves from other banks.
D.a claim has been "demonetized."
36) Other things equal, a 10 percent decrease in corporate income taxes will:
A.have no effect on the location of the investment-demand curve.
B.decrease the market price of real capital goods.
C.shift the investment-demand curve to the left.
D.shift the investment-demand curve to the right.
37) Exchange rates are determined in the long-run by:
A.Financial asset pricing.
B.Purchasing power parity.
C.Real growth rates.
D.Interest rate differentials.
38) Suppose that US prices rise 4 percent over the next year while prices in Mexico rise 6%. According to the purchasing power parity theory of exchange rates, what should happen to the exchange rate between the dollar and the peso?
A.The dollar will be revalued.
B.The peso should depreciate.
C.The peso should appreciate.
D.The dollar should depreciate.
39) An increase in interest rates in the United States will lead to:
A.A decrease in the demand for dollar-denominated financial assets.
B.Capital inflows into the United States.
C.Outflows of capital from the United States.
D.Depreciation of the dollar.
Customer: replied 4 years ago.

i cant get them all on here i guess..there are 39 questions...can u send me another text box and i will send them?

28) The industries or sectors of the economy in which business cycle fluctuations tend to affect output the most are:
A.capital goods and durable consumer goods.
B.services and nondurable consumer goods.
C.clothing and education.
D.military goods and capital goods.
29) Inflation is undesirable because it:
A.reduces everyone's standard of living.
B.invariably leads to hyperinflation.
C.usually is accompanied by declining real GDP.
D.arbitrarily redistributes real income and wealth.
30) If the U.S. unemployment rate is 9 percent, we can infer that:
A.actual GDP is equal to potential GDP.
B.potential GDP is in excess of actual GDP.
C.actual GDP is in excess of potential GDP.
D.the economy is in the expansion phase of the business cycle.
31) Given the annual rate of inflation, the "rule of 70" allows one to:
A.calculate the number of years required for the price level to double.
B.calculate the accompanying rate of unemployment.
C.determine when the value of a real asset will approach zero.
D.determine whether the inflation is demand-pull or cost-push.
32) Suppose the price level is fixed, the MPC is .5, and the GDP gap is a negative $100 billion. To achieve full-employment output (exactly), government should:
A.increase government expenditures by $50 billion.
B.increase government expenditures by $100 billion.
C.reduce taxes by $200 billion.
D.reduce taxes by $50 billion.
33) Expansionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
A.necessarily expands the size of government.
B.involves an expansion of the nation's money supply.
C.is designed to expand real GDP.
D.is aimed at achieving greater price stability.

In a fractional reserve banking system:
A.the monetary system must be backed by gold.
B.bank panics cannot occur.
C.the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.
D.banks can create money through the lending process.
35) Assume the Standard Internet Company negotiates a loan for $5,000 from the Metro National Bank and receives a checkable deposit for that amount in exchange for its promissory note (IOU). As a result of this transaction:
A.the supply of money declines by the amount of the loan.
B.the supply of money is increased by $5,000.
C.the Metro Bank acquires reserves from other banks.
D.a claim has been "demonetized."
36) Other things equal, a 10 percent decrease in corporate income taxes will:
A.have no effect on the location of the investment-demand curve.
B.decrease the market price of real capital goods.
C.shift the investment-demand curve to the left.
D.shift the investment-demand curve to the right.
37) Exchange rates are determined in the long-run by:
A.Financial asset pricing.
B.Purchasing power parity.
C.Real growth rates.
D.Interest rate differentials.
38) Suppose that US prices rise 4 percent over the next year while prices in Mexico rise 6%. According to the purchasing power parity theory of exchange rates, what should happen to the exchange rate between the dollar and the peso?
A.The dollar will be revalued.
B.The peso should depreciate.
C.The peso should appreciate.
D.The dollar should depreciate.
39) An increase in interest rates in the United States will lead to:
A.A decrease in the demand for dollar-denominated financial assets.
B.Capital inflows into the United States.
C.Outflows of capital from the United States.
D.Depreciation of the dollar.

Expert:  Dr. Amit replied 4 years ago.
Well that's a long list.
Let me know the due date, if any...so that i can post whether i can do it for you.
Else i will opt out so that other experts can help you.
Regards
Customer: replied 4 years ago.

ok..well opt out....THANKS FOR YOUR HELP...OR ATTEMPT AT HELPING ME.

 

I have 2 hours left..... :(

Expert:  Dr. Amit replied 4 years ago.
Ok i am opting out, so that some other experts can help you quicker.
If i am able to do this within 2 hours.. i will post the answers.
Regards
Expert:  Dr. Amit replied 4 years ago.
Alright..no worries..!
I am opting back in.
I went through them & almost done with all these.. and will post you the answers soon :)
Customer: replied 4 years ago.
omg...thanks a million!!!!!! i am told they are seamingly easy...however, i am not good with economics!
Expert:  Dr. Amit replied 4 years ago.
THIS ANSWER IS LOCKED!
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Category: Homework
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Expert:  Dr. Amit replied 4 years ago.
Hello
I hope you have downloaded the file and successfully seen the answers.

Let me know if you need any other associated info.
Customer: replied 4 years ago.
you rock!
Expert:  Dr. Amit replied 4 years ago.
Its my pleasure helping you. Smile

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Dr. Amit
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