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i have 4 Accounting questions about bad debt, cash realizable

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i have 4 Accounting questions about bad debt, cash realizable value, preparing entry using percent age of receivables method, and the Write-down of Impaired assets. Anyone understand better?

3) What are the essential features of the allowance method of accounting for bad debts?
4) Lauren Anderson cannot understand why the cash realizable value does not decrease when an uncollectible account is written off under the allowance method. Clarify this point for Lauren.
Exercise E8-5
Prepare entry using percent-age of receivables method.
Jaya Co. uses the percentage of receivables basis to record bad debts expense and concludes that 2% of accounts receivable will become uncollectible. Accounts receivable are $500,000 at the end of the year, and the allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance of $1,500.
1.     Prepare the adjusting journal entry to record bad debts expense for the year.
2.     If the allowance for doubtful accounts had a debit balance of $600 instead of a credit balance of $1,500, prepare the adjusting journal entry for bad debts expense.
Exercise E9-9
The Write-Down of Impaired Assets
LO4
LO7
For several years, a number of Food Lion, Inc., grocery stores were unprofitable. The company closed, and continues to close, some of these locations. It is apparent that the company will not be able to recover the cost of the assets associated with the closed stores. Thus, the current value of these impaired assets must be written down.
A recent Food Lion income statement reports a $9.5 million charge against income pertaining to the write-down of impaired assets.
1.     Explain why Food Lion must write down the current carrying value of its unprofitable stores.
2.     Explain why the recent $9.5 million charge to write down these impaired assets is considered a noncash expense.
Submitted: 5 years ago.
Category: Homework
Expert:  Steve replied 5 years ago.
ThanksCustomerfor the chance to answer your questions.

3) The allowance method takes a percentage of the net credit sales and uses that as the bad debt expence. So if a firm decides that 3% of their credit sales will end up being bad debts, they take their total credit sales and multiply by .03 to get the amount that will be debited to bad debts expense.

4)The calculations made to adjust the net realizable amount is done before accounts are written off. The strategy predicts the amount of sales will become bad debts, and accounts for the immediately. This would be the reason why the realizable value doesn't change (it was already adjusted).

5)You take the $500,000 and multiply it by 2% to get the amount of bad debts in the recievables. This number comes to $10,000. Since the allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance of $1,500, we subtract that from $10,000 to get $8,500. We then debit that to allowance for doubtful accounts, and credit it to bad debts expense

Debit: Allowance for doubtfull accounts    $8,500
Credit:     Bad Debts Expense                     $8,500

pt 2). If the allowance for doubtful accounts had a debit balance already, we would do the opposite. The debit balance is $600, so we ADD that to the $10,000 expected. This gives us the following journal entry:

Debit: Allowance for doubtfull accounts    $10,600
Credit:     Bad Debts Expense                      $10,600


L07 pt 1) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles require the write down of its impared assets. Not doing so would create an inflated value of the grocery chain. By re-evaluating the worth of their assets, they can make better decisions regarding the future of their stores, and provide better information to outside investors.

pt 2) When recording an impared asset, the debit is usually in a loss account, and the credit is in the asset account. Because the assets are never really sold as cash, there is no purpose to using the cash account to record the change in asset value.

-Hopefullt this helps!

-Steve
Customer: replied 5 years ago.
Hey Steve, thank you for taking the time to answer my questions. I have only looked them over briefly but will take more of a look later today and confirm, and then accept your answer. I also had one other question that I was wondering if you are familiar with, which has to do with internal control principles. I have listed the question below but I can only find one in each. can you help?

The internal control procedures in Barton Company make the following provisions. Identify the principles of internal control that are being followed in each case.
  1. Employees who have physical custody of assets do not have access to the accounting records.
  2. Each month the assets on hand are compared to the accounting records by an internal auditor.
  3. A prenumbered shipping document is prepared for each shipment of goods to customers.
Expert:  Steve replied 5 years ago.
It seems to me that the question is only asking for 1 principle of internal control for each scenario. Based on the principles, there only seems to be one that clearly fits within each one. Nevertheless, I gave 2 examples for each one. The first one is what im sure it is, the 2nd one is what it also could be.

The internal control procedures in Barton Company make the following provisions. Identify the principles of internal control that are being followed in each case.
1.Employees who have physical custody of assets do not have access to the accounting records.

- Separate record keeping and custody over assets
- Establish responsibilities

2.Each month the assets on hand are compared to the accounting records by an internal auditor.

-Perform regular and independed reviews
-Maintain adequate records

Once again, hope this helps
-Steve

3.A prenumbered shipping document is prepared for each shipment of goods to customers.

-Apply technological controls
-Maintain adequate records
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Customer: replied 4 years ago.

Hey Steve, I posted one incorrect question and have listed the correct one below. Since you seem to be good with this subject I was wondering if you could assist me with one more question? If so, I could add a bonus onto your payment. thanks


E8-5 Hachey Company has accounts receivable of $95,100 at March 31, 2007. An analysis

of the accounts shows these amounts.

Balance, March 31

Month of Sale 2007 2006

March $65,000 $75,000

February 12,600 8,000

December and January 10,100 2,400

November and October 7,400 1,100

$95,100 $86,500

Credit terms are 2/10, n/30. At March 31, 2007, there is a $2,200 credit balance in Allowance

for Doubtful Accounts prior to adjustment. The company uses the percentage of

receivables basis for estimating uncollectible accounts. The company’s estimates of bad

debts are as shown on page 402.

Reporting and Analyzing Receivables

Estimated Percentage

Age of Accounts Uncollectible

Current 2%

1–30 days past due 7

31–90 days past due 30

Over 90 days 50

Instructions

(a) Determine the total estimated uncollectibles.

(b) Prepare the adjusting entry at March 31, 2007, to record bad debts expense.

(c) Discuss the implications of the changes in the aging schedule from 2006 to 2007.

Expert:  Steve replied 4 years ago.
HeyCustomer

Unfortunately im at work right now, but I will be able to answer the question this evening. Is that alright?

-Steve
Customer: replied 4 years ago.
Hey Steve, yes that would have been fine. I actually need this answered by tomorrow Monday 8/23- I hope you will be able to assist me before then. Here is the problem again. thanks

Hachey Company has accounts receivables of $95,100 at March 31, 2007. An analysis of the accounts shows these amounts:

Balance as of March 31, 2007

Month of Sale

2007

2006

March

$65,000

$75,000

February

12,600

8,000

December and January

10,100

2,400

November and October

7,400

1,100

Total

$95,100

$86,500

Credit terms are 2/10, n/30. At March 31, 2007, there is a $2,200 credit balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts prior to adjustment. The company uses the percentage of receivables basis for estimating uncollectible accounts. The company’s estimates of bad debts are as shown on page 402.

Age of Accounts

Estimated Percentage Uncollectible

Current

2%

1-30 days past due

7

31-90 days past due

30

Over 90 days

50

Instructions:

(a) Determine the total estimated uncollectibles.

(b) Prepare the adjusting entry as of March 31, 2007 to record bad debt expense.

(c) Discuss the implications of the changes in the aging schedule from 2006 to 2007.

Expert:  Steve replied 4 years ago.
<p>Based on the information in this question, this is how I would approach the problem. </p><p>the n/30 means that the each bill is due in 30 days. This means everything before February 28th of 2007 is late.</p><p> </p><p>Everything before December of 2006 is more than 90 days late, this means that 50% of that amount is considered uncollectible. That amount equals $7,400... or <strong>$3,700 </strong>uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in January and December is 31-90 days late, which means 30% of them are uncollectable. This amount is $10,100... or <strong>$3,030</strong> of it is uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in February is 1-30 days late, which means 7% of the accounts in that month are uncollectible. This amount is $12,600 and<strong> $882</strong> of it is uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in March is considered current, and 2% of that is uncollectible. That amount is $65,000 and <strong>$1,300</strong> of that is considered uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p><strong>A) All of those numbers added together get a total amount $8,912 that is considered uncollectible.</strong></p><p> </p><p>B) To create a journal entry, you debit bad debt expense and credit allowance for doubtful accounts. Since there already is a $2,200 credit balance for the allowance for doubful accounts, we subtract that total number before we make an entry.</p><p> </p><p>$8,912 - $2,200 = <strong>$6,712 to be used in the entry</strong>. The entry will look like this:</p><p> </p><p>Debit:    <strong>Bad Debts Expense                                   $6,712</strong></p><p>Credit:<strong>             Allowance For Doubtful Accounts                    $6,712</strong></p><p> </p><p>C) This question im not 100% sure what its asking. Based on the question, it seems like they used a different method to record bad debts. If they used the direct write off method, their bad debts probably increased a large amount in 2007 (because they are assuming more accounts will end up being uncollectible instead of waiting until its proven.) If there is no other information, I would just say that the bad debts increased due to the increased amounts in the recievables during that time period.</p><p> </p><p>-Once again, hope this helps!</p><p> </p><p>-Steve</p>
Expert:  Steve replied 4 years ago.
<p>Based on the information in this question, this is how I would approach the problem. </p><p>the n/30 means that the each bill is due in 30 days. This means everything before February 28th of 2007 is late.</p><p> </p><p>Everything before December of 2006 is more than 90 days late, this means that 50% of that amount is considered uncollectible. That amount equals $7,400... or <strong>$3,700 </strong>uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in January and December is 31-90 days late, which means 30% of them are uncollectable. This amount is $10,100... or <strong>$3,030</strong> of it is uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in February is 1-30 days late, which means 7% of the accounts in that month are uncollectible. This amount is $12,600 and<strong> $882</strong> of it is uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in March is considered current, and 2% of that is uncollectible. That amount is $65,000 and <strong>$1,300</strong> of that is considered uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p><strong>A) All of those numbers added together get a total amount $8,912 that is considered uncollectible.</strong></p><p> </p><p>B) To create a journal entry, you debit bad debt expense and credit allowance for doubtful accounts. Since there already is a $2,200 credit balance for the allowance for doubful accounts, we subtract that total number before we make an entry.</p><p> </p><p>$8,912 - $2,200 = <strong>$6,712 to be used in the entry</strong>. The entry will look like this:</p><p> </p><p>Debit:    <strong>Bad Debts Expense                  & nbsp;               $6,712</strong></p><p>Credit:<strong>             Allowance For Doubtful Accounts                    $6,712</strong></p><p> </p><p>C) This question im not 100% sure what its asking. Based on the question, it seems like they used a different method to record bad debts. If they used the direct write off method, their bad debts probably increased a large amount in 2007 (because they are assuming more accounts will end up being uncollectible instead of waiting until its proven.) If there is no other information, I would just say that the bad debts increased due to the increased amounts in the recievables during that time period.</p><p> </p><p>-Once again, hope this helps!</p><p> </p><p>-Steve</p>
Expert:  Steve replied 4 years ago.
<p>Based on the information in this question, this is how I would approach the problem. </p><p>the n/30 means that the each bill is due in 30 days. This means everything before February 28th of 2007 is late.</p><p> </p><p>Everything before December of 2006 is more than 90 days late, this means that 50% of that amount is considered uncollectible. That amount equals $7,400... or <strong>$3,700 </strong>uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in January and December is 31-90 days late, which means 30% of them are uncollectable. This amount is $10,100... or <strong>$3,030</strong> of it is uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in February is 1-30 days late, which means 7% of the accounts in that month are uncollectible. This amount is $12,600 and<strong> $882</strong> of it is uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in March is considered current, and 2% of that is uncollectible. That amount is $65,000 and <strong>$1,300</strong> of that is considered uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p><strong>A) All of those numbers added together get a total amount $8,912 that is considered uncollectible.</strong></p><p> </p><p>B) To create a journal entry, you debit bad debt expense and credit allowance for doubtful accounts. Since there already is a $2,200 credit balance for the allowance for doubful accounts, we subtract that total number before we make an entry.</p><p> </p><p>$8,912 - $2,200 = <strong>$6,712 to be used in the entry</strong>. The entry will look like this:</p><p> </p><p>Debit:    <strong>Bad Debts Expense                         & nbsp;        $6,712</strong></p><p>Credit:<strong>             Allowance For Doubtful Accounts                    $6,712</strong></p><p> </p><p>C) This question im not 100% sure what its asking. Based on the question, it seems like they used a different method to record bad debts. If they used the direct write off method, their bad debts probably increased a large amount in 2007 (because they are assuming more accounts will end up being uncollectible instead of waiting until its proven.) If there is no other information, I would just say that the bad debts increased due to the increased amounts in the recievables during that time period.</p><p> </p><p>-Once again, hope this helps!</p><p> </p><p>-Steve</p>
Expert:  Steve replied 4 years ago.
<p>Based on the information in this question, this is how I would approach the problem. </p><p>the n/30 means that the each bill is due in 30 days. This means everything before February 28th of 2007 is late.</p><p> </p><p>Everything before December of 2006 is more than 90 days late, this means that 50% of that amount is considered uncollectible. That amount equals $7,400... or <strong>$3,700 </strong>uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in January and December is 31-90 days late, which means 30% of them are uncollectable. This amount is $10,100... or <strong>$3,030</strong> of it is uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in February is 1-30 days late, which means 7% of the accounts in that month are uncollectible. This amount is $12,600 and<strong> $882</strong> of it is uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p>Everything in March is considered current, and 2% of that is uncollectible. That amount is $65,000 and <strong>$1,300</strong> of that is considered uncollectible.</p><p> </p><p><strong>A) All of those numbers added together get a total amount $8,912 that is considered uncollectible.</strong></p><p> </p><p>B) To create a journal entry, you debit bad debt expense and credit allowance for doubtful accounts. Since there already is a $2,200 credit balance for the allowance for doubful accounts, we subtract that total number before we make an entry.</p><p> </p><p>$8,912 - $2,200 = <strong>$6,712 to be used in the entry</strong>. The entry will look like this:</p><p> </p><p>Debit:    <strong>Bad Debts Expense                &n bsp;                 $6,712</strong></p><p>Credit:<strong>             Allowance For Doubtful Accounts                    $6,712</strong></p><p> </p><p>C) This question im not 100% sure what its asking. Based on the question, it seems like they used a different method to record bad debts. If they used the direct write off method, their bad debts probably increased a large amount in 2007 (because they are assuming more accounts will end up being uncollectible instead of waiting until its proven.) If there is no other information, I would just say that the bad debts increased due to the increased amounts in the recievables during that time period.</p><p> </p><p>-Once again, hope this helps!</p><p> </p><p>-Steve</p>
Expert:  Steve replied 4 years ago.
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