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Dr. Abbott
Dr. Abbott, Etiquette Coach
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It seems that if one has the fullness or the effusion of the

Resolved Question:

It seems that if one has the fullness or the
effusion of the Holy Spirit that the evidence of signs and wonders should
follow as contrasted with speaking in
tongues. What do you think?
Submitted: 1 year ago.
Category: General
Expert:  B. Resendez replied 1 year ago.

 

B. Resendez :

Hello, Thank you for using this service. I wish to introduce myself. I am a Research Librarian with 10 years of experience.

B. Resendez :

That's correct

“And suddenly there came a sound from heaven, as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled the whole house where they were sitting. Then there appeared to them divided tongues, as of fire, and one sat upon each of them (Ac. 2:2-3).

B. Resendez :

The outpouring of the Holy Spirit was immediately preceded and accompanied by sensible signs exhibited to both the ears and eyes of those assembled. The two signs were wind and tongues of fire.

B. Resendez :

I have found a few different sources for this information if you would like to look further into it.

Brian Schwertly's "Pentecost and the Coming of the Holy Spirit" and Russell Byrum's "Holy Spirit Baptism and the Second Cleansing."

B. Resendez41172.0678537037
B. Resendez :

Russell Byrum's "Holy Spirit Baptism and the Second Cleansing"


 


 

Customer:

f

B. Resendez, Librarian
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Expert:  Michael Hannigan replied 1 year ago.
Hello.Customer I can give you my opinion, FWIW.

I don't think the two are mutually exclusive if you take "tongues" as it was referenced in the bible understanding that the word itself is only one of many possibe translations from the original texts. "Toungs" as a spritual language where the person speaking it could not be understood is more "folklore" than anything.

If you look to the handful of places in the Bible this practice of "speaking tounges" is supposed to be based on, you'll see that each has their own meaning in the context of the story, and even the sentence. Here are a couple of examples:

Mark 16:17,And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
MarK 16:20,And they went forth, and preached every where, the Lord working with them, and confirming the word with signs following

My response: By "New Tongues" Jesus is implying that they will be preaching to confirm the word of God, and they will have to skill to do it with even the most difficult people. They weren't able to do that before for whatever reason, but now they can.

Acts 2, which describes an occurrence of speaking in tongues in Jerusalem at Pentecost, though with various interpretations. Specifically, "every man heard them speak in his own language" and wondered "how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?"

My take: It's more simple to understand with this correct translation. People were not talking in "Toungs" Proper or a nonsense language. To the contrary, the miracle was that people from different languages could understand each other! That's one heck of a sign, but now how your typical "Toungs Advocat" would see it.

Acts 10:46, when the household of Cornelius in Caesarea spoke in tongues, and those present compared it to the speaking in tongues that occurred at Pentecost.
At least that's what people think it said, but the words in the Bible are, actually starting with 10:46:

...because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.

46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter.

 

My take on it: This has nothing to do with the whole household of Cornelius speaking tounges. Cornelius was last mentioned in Acts 10:31. This isn't the household, this is the holy spirit speaking "WITH" tounges - meaning they could be heard and understood. Perhaps even the Holy Spirit Speaking through Gentiles "who also poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost". Nobody was talking in this imaginary langueage CALLED "Tounges"

 

And again: Acts 19:6, when a group of approximately a dozen men spoke in tongues in Ephesus as they received the Holy Spirit while the apostle Paul laid his hands upon them.

 

Not exactly - here is the text "And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.

 

My Take: My sentence construction tells me we're referring to the holy spirits talking "with toungs" meaning in an audible and understandable way.

 

And there are many more. So I agree with what you are saying. In the instances where some interpret that "Tounges", a nonsensical language was spoken, it's actually something more profound - like people of different cultures understand each other in their own tongue. That's remarkable, and That's a sign all by itself.

 

And for the people that have talked in tounges? If they've made up something to make them more comfortable believing, then good for them, but I don't think anything like that is really even referenced in the Bible when translated and then interpreted correctly.

 

Mike



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Expert:  Dr. Abbott replied 1 year ago.

-- I absolutely never add a post that might diminish my colleagues here and to them, I sincerely XXXXX XXXXX since I am a minister with a doctorate in divinity I hope I can help you all better understand and spread the word on your own from this day forward:

- This is probably one of the most misunderstood and misinterpreted writings of the Bible. Of the 4 Gospels, Jesus only mentioned ‘tongues’ once (Mark 16:17) “...these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name they shall cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues”. However, “new” at the time meant speaking in languages new to the individual. Languages they had no knowledge of.
---
In Acts 2-4, Luke says “They began to speak with other tongues” meaning they spoke in languages not typically used by them.

Speaking in tongues in the very basic, earliest descriptions meant that when a disciple needed to reach any group of doubters or non believers, particularly the Jews, they would be given the gift of 'tongues’ by the Holy Spirit and have the immediate ability to communicate in the languages native to the people they were to teach.
___
Let's go back to Acts 2:7-8 “Behold! Are not all these which speak Galileans? And how hear we every man in our own tongue wherein we were born?" Acts 2:6 - “Every man heard them speak in his own language"
---
Then we come to the incredible number of references to speaking in tongues that happen in Corinthians (1 Corinthians 12-14)
---
What occurs is that the translators of the texts when forming the Bible changed the meaning of what “tongues” was. Yet in every other place other than 1 Corinthians, “Tongues” meant language
---
The Holy Spirit never told Paul to imply or write that “Tongues” meant a language unknown - and Paul was upset when purported believes thought this and would burst out in what they thought was “speaking in tongues” just to show they were gifted by the spirit.
---
Paul firmly admonished them “Brethren, be not children in understanding” - basically telling them they were emotionally immature in using the theater of ‘speaking in tongues’ without truly studying the Scriptures and learning the whole truth of it.
---
Speaking in tongues was as you mention, a gift bestowed by the Holy Spirit, but it became misused by misunderstanding.

-- Since the Corinthian church was unspiritual, having manifested carnality (3:1-3) and even gross sin (5:1) speaking in tongues could not have been 'spiritual', but nicely put, made up.

Paul directs them to a Scripture they should have known, saying, “In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord” (12:21).
---
Paul refers to a prophecy God had given through Isaiah. The nation of Israel had failed to adhere to God’s message which He gave through the prophets, so the Lord told them that at a future time they will hear His message through tongues (languages) other than their own. “For with stammering lips and another tongue will He speak to this people “ (Isaiah 28:12).

So you see, Paul knows that in the prophecy the gift of tongues as a sign to Israel. The words “this people” in Isaiah 28:11, in its context, can refer only to Israel. The abuse of tongues-speaking in Corinth did not arise from the belief in speaking in tongues, but rather in the neglect of the Scriptures which teach its proper use.
---

BotXXXXX XXXXXne is that 'speaking in tongues' having come to mean writhing around while spewing gibberish is a result of basically 'pick and choose' readers of the bible - not true students of scripture.

And the true 'gift of the spirit' is not imparted to everyone just because they believe; however, is given to a select number who need it to give proof to other nations as they carry the word of the Lord to people who do not understand . The teacher, the bringer of the light, will suddenly find themselves speaking in whatever language they need to speak to be heard and understood

---
Once again, my most heartfelt apologies to my colleagues who tried very hard to bring their own interpretation to you as an answer. I respect them for that effort and am always here to answer even their questions when it comes to matters of ministry and all religions

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