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Cher
Cher, Educator-40+ yrs
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1. I see some manuals of Spanish verbs that lists such tense

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1. I see some manuals of Spanish verbs that lists such tense as future subjunctive. Does it really exist and is employed because I thought that, unlike indiative, subjunctive has no future tense?
Submitted: 1 year ago.
Category: General
Expert:  Cher replied 1 year ago.

Hello again,Customerand welcome back to Just Answer.

Thank you for your interesting question!

Yes, the future subjunctive does exist, however, it is considered an 'obsolete' verb form. The future subjunctive is meant to be used in Spanish when an expression or verb requiring the subjunctive in the main clause is in the present or future tense and refers to an action in the future. However, you are unlikely to ever hear it in spoken Spanish, as it tends to be replaced by the present subjunctive.

The Spanish future subjunctive can possibly still be found in written Spanish, such as legal documents and literature, so it's a good idea to be able to recognize it if you should come across it.

This is how verbs are conjugated in the future subjunctive for -ar, -er and -ir verbs (-er and -ir verbs share the same endings):

The conjugations are similar to those of the -ar form of the imperfect subjunctive--take the third person plural preterite form of any regular, irregular or stem-changing verb, drop the -ron ending and add the appropriate ending for each subject. Examples:

Hablar

yo hablare
tú hablares
él, ella, usted hablare

nosotros habláremos
vosotros hablareis
ellos, ellas, ustedes hablaren

Tener

yo tuviere
tú tuvieres
él, ella, usted tuviere

nosotros tuviéremos
vosotros tuviereis
ellos, ellas, ustedes tuvieren

Note that the yo and él forms are identical and the nosotros form is the only one with an accent on the vowel before the ending.

 

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Best regards,
Cher



Cher, Educator-40+ yrs
Category: General
Satisfied Customers: 18564
Experience: M.A., B.A., Author, Senior Informational Specialist
Cher and 115 other General Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 1 year ago.

1. I often see that the verb cada never changes its ending to o when used with masculine nouns. Does it mean that it just one of the verbs that does not undergo gender change?


 


2. I used to study French and Italian and in compound tenses most of the verbs were conjugated with avoir/avere, but some intransitive verbs of motion were conjugated with etre/essere. From my studies of Spanish I see that all the verbs are conjugated with hacer. Does it mean that Spanish employs only one auxuliary verb?

Expert:  Cher replied 1 year ago.
Hello again, and thanks very much for your Excellent rating on your first question; it is greatly appreciated!

1. 'Cada' is not a verb, it is an adjective, meaning 'each/every'. Yes, as with other adjectives which must agree in gender and number with the nouns they modify, cada does not change its ending. It's just one of those Spanish grammatical rules that must be observed but is inexplicable.

2. Hacer is used as an auxiliary or helping verb before the past participle to form the present perfect tense. For example: He comido ya--I have already eaten

Other auxiliary verbs like 'haber' (which you inquired about in a previous question I answered for you) help to form the past perfect or 'pluperfect'. Example:
Ellos no habían comido antes de hacer su tarea--They hadn't eaten before doing their homework. 'Progressive' tenses such as the present progressive, use forms of 'estar' as the auxiliary verb followed by the gerund (word ending in -ing). Example: Ella está durmiendo--She is sleeping.

So, as you can see, in French and Italian, where compound tenses often use conjugated forms of avoir/avere and etre/essere, it is similar in Spanish with hacer, haber and estar.

If you have any additional questions or concerns, please click 'Reply to Expert' before rating, direct your reply to me, "Cher", and I will be happy to continue our conversation.

IMPORTANT: If you found my answer helpful, please choose a positive rating like this one Laughing for 'Excellent Service', so I may receive credit for assisting you.

 

Although never expected, Bonuses are always welcomed and appreciated!

~~ To request my future assistance, please begin your question with "FOR CHER" ~~




Best regards,
Cher

Cher, Educator-40+ yrs
Category: General
Satisfied Customers: 18564
Experience: M.A., B.A., Author, Senior Informational Specialist
Cher and 115 other General Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 1 year ago.

1. As a follow up to #2, in French and Italian only certain intransitive verbs of motion and all the reflexive verbs are conjugated with etre/essere. All others are conjugated with avoir/avere. From what I see, the demarkation is different in Spanish in a sense that it is not the case that some verbs use one auxiliary verb and others use another, instead that in some compound tenses one verb is used and in other another is used. Is my understanding correct?


 


2. I know in French there are some verbs taht require subjuntive in affirmative sentences, but do not use them in negative sentences. Those are mostly verbs of doubt. My understanding is that rule does not apply in Spanish, right?

Expert:  Cher replied 1 year ago.
Hello again, and thanks for your follow up question. Also thanks for your Excellent rating, which I appreciate.

1. Yes, your understanding is correct. It is basically the verb tense you want to use and the meaning you would like to convey in the sentence, that would determine which auxilliary verb would be used with the proper past or present participle or gerund, in a compound verb protocol.

2. In Spanish, situations of doubt, impersonal expressions, and other idiomatic expressions will employ the subjunctive. In negative sentences, for example; No dudo que ella viene (I don't doubt that she's coming), the subjunctive will not be employed, as no doubt is indicated by the use of 'I don't doubt', meaning you know for sure, she's coming.

If you have any additional questions or need clarification, please click 'Reply to Expert' before rating, direct your reply to me, "Cher", and I will be happy to continue our conversation.

IMPORTANT: If you found my answer helpful, please choose a positive rating like this one Laughing for 'Excellent Service', so I may receive credit for assisting you.

 

Although never expected, Bonuses are always welcomed and appreciated!

~~ To request my future assistance, please begin your question with "FOR CHER" ~~




Best regards,
Cher

Cher, Educator-40+ yrs
Category: General
Satisfied Customers: 18564
Experience: M.A., B.A., Author, Senior Informational Specialist
Cher and 115 other General Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 1 year ago.

I want to take a small break from the grammar and ask you about learning Spanish.


 


1. Of course, studying grammar is very important, but these methods have limits that are unfortunately rather quickly reached. Much knowledge is gained from the exposure to language. I used to use audiocassettes from Audioforum when I was studying French and German and they were very helpful. It was almost the difference between not being able to speak and being able to speak. Unfortunately, Audioforumn is no longer around. For Spanish I was forced to use tapes from Living Language and Pimsleur. They are helpful, but less so than Audioforum. Do you know what is the most comprehensive audiocourse, since Audioforum is no longer around?


 


2. Long time ago I tried to study Portuguese, but then gave up on that. How easy it is to learn Portuguese, after learning Spanish, if you know?

Expert:  Cher replied 1 year ago.
Hello again, abrik and thanks for requesting me to answer your new question.

I agree completely, that 'total immersion' into the language via hearing it frequently, conversing with native speakers, listening to Spanish TV and radio, is the key to learning to develop an ear for the language and increasing your conversational, audio and comprehension skills.

Pimsleur has it's good points, but I feel it's too slow, especially if you're already a Spanish language learner. Rosetta Stone has a good reputation, but I feel it's lacking in explaining why you're saying what you're saying and to me, comprehension is very important. If you're most interested in increasing your listening and conversational skills, there are many free, online audio courses which you will want to check out:

http://www.spanishprograms.com/

http://onlinefreespanish.com/

http://www.spanishdict.com/learn

http://www.lenguajero.com/ (this is great for conversational Spanish practice)

http://www.studyspanish.com/

http://www.openculture.com/free_spanish_lessons

http://radiolingua.com/shows/spanish/coffee-break-spanish/


If you would like me to search for more comprehensive Spanish audio courses which are not free, I would be happy to do that for you. Just let me know.

Learning Portuguese after becoming proficient in Spanish, and if you already know French, I think will not be too difficult for you. Portuguese is similar, in many ways to both aforementioned languages and quite different, at the same time. In my opinion, already knowing Spanish (and French) will be an asset in learning Portuguese.


IMPORTANT: If you are satisfied with my answer, please choose a positive rating like this one Laughing for 'Excellent Service', so I may receive credit for my help. I'm very proud of my 100% positive feedback received from clients like you!

If you have any additional questions or concerns, please click 'Reply to Expert' and I will be glad to assist you further.

Best regards,
Cher
Cher, Educator-40+ yrs
Category: General
Satisfied Customers: 18564
Experience: M.A., B.A., Author, Senior Informational Specialist
Cher and 115 other General Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 1 year ago.

This time I will limit it to only one question, since here each case may need to be explained individually. In English clauses introduced by when, if, until, after, etc. do not employ future tense, even if future is implied. What are the rules in Spanish about that? I know that at least in some of those instances the subjunctive is used, but there are some where the indicative is used.

Expert:  Cher replied 1 year ago.
Hello again, abrik and thanks for requesting me to answer your new question.

You are correct that in some cases the future tense, indicative, or subjunctive will be used in clauses introduced by when, if, until, after and others. The verb tense used, is dependent upon the context of the sentence/question and the meaning it intends to convey.

Example: If she comes to the party, will she stay until 10:00?

Si ella venga a la fiesta, ¿se quedará hasta las diez?

In this example, since the sentence begins with 'if', this implies doubt, so the first verb (venir) is in the subjunctive and the second verb (stay) is in the future tense.

Another example with 'When': When she leaves, I will do my homework.

Cuando ella se va, voy a hacer mi tarea.

The first verb form (irse) is in the indicative and the second is in the future (a form of ir + a + infinitive is substituted for the actual future tense of the verb and is very acceptable).

As I mentioned, a lot depends on the actual context of the statement or question, so if you have a specific sentence that you find confusing, please let me know.

If you have any additional questions or concerns, please click 'Reply to Expert' before rating, direct your reply to me, "Cher", and I will be happy to continue our conversation.

IMPORTANT: If you found my answer helpful, please choose a positive rating like this one Laughing for 'Excellent Service', so I may receive credit for assisting you.

If you should experience any problem with the ratings system, please reply back to let me know and I will have it taken care of for you.

Please rate when you are satisfied with my answer. My only goal is your satisfaction!


Best regards,
Cher

Cher, Educator-40+ yrs
Category: General
Satisfied Customers: 18564
Experience: M.A., B.A., Author, Senior Informational Specialist
Cher and 115 other General Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 1 year ago.

1. I see that the verb in the clause introduced by cuando is in present, even though both clauses in the sentence talk about future events. If I remember it right, in French both clauses will be in the future, since clauses introduced by QUAND require future tense, if future is intended. Does it mean that the ruledoes ot exist in Spanish?


 


2. Also I remember that in French, if the clause introduced by Apres que, future perfect is used, when future actions are described. Another thing about apres que is that it always requires a perfect form whatever time may be. I know that despues que uses the subjunctive, but does it also always require a perfect form?


 

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