Hello again,Customerand welcome back to Just Answer.Thank you for your interesting question!Yes, the future subjunctive does exist, however, it is considered an 'obsolete' verb form. The future subjunctive is meant to be used in Spanish when an expression or verb requiring the subjunctive in the main clause is in the present or future tense and refers to an action in the future. However, you are unlikely to ever hear it in spoken Spanish, as it tends to be replaced by the present subjunctive. The Spanish future subjunctive can possibly still be found in written Spanish, such as legal documents and literature, so it's a good idea to be able to recognize it if you should come across it.This is how verbs are conjugated in the future subjunctive for -ar, -er and -ir verbs (-er and -ir verbs share the same endings):The conjugations are similar to those of the -ar form of the imperfect subjunctive--take the third person plural preterite form of any regular, irregular or stem-changing verb, drop the -ron ending and add the appropriate ending for each subject. Examples:Hablaryo hablaretú hablaresél, ella, usted hablarenosotros habláremosvosotros hablareisellos, ellas, ustedes hablarenTeneryo tuvieretú tuvieresél, ella, usted tuvierenosotros tuviéremosvosotros tuviereisellos, ellas, ustedes tuvierenNote that the yo and él forms are identical and the nosotros form is the only one with an accent on the vowel before the ending.
1. I often see that the verb cada never changes its ending to o when used with masculine nouns. Does it mean that it just one of the verbs that does not undergo gender change?
2. I used to study French and Italian and in compound tenses most of the verbs were conjugated with avoir/avere, but some intransitive verbs of motion were conjugated with etre/essere. From my studies of Spanish I see that all the verbs are conjugated with hacer. Does it mean that Spanish employs only one auxuliary verb?
1. As a follow up to #2, in French and Italian only certain intransitive verbs of motion and all the reflexive verbs are conjugated with etre/essere. All others are conjugated with avoir/avere. From what I see, the demarkation is different in Spanish in a sense that it is not the case that some verbs use one auxiliary verb and others use another, instead that in some compound tenses one verb is used and in other another is used. Is my understanding correct?
2. I know in French there are some verbs taht require subjuntive in affirmative sentences, but do not use them in negative sentences. Those are mostly verbs of doubt. My understanding is that rule does not apply in Spanish, right?
I want to take a small break from the grammar and ask you about learning Spanish.
1. Of course, studying grammar is very important, but these methods have limits that are unfortunately rather quickly reached. Much knowledge is gained from the exposure to language. I used to use audiocassettes from Audioforum when I was studying French and German and they were very helpful. It was almost the difference between not being able to speak and being able to speak. Unfortunately, Audioforumn is no longer around. For Spanish I was forced to use tapes from Living Language and Pimsleur. They are helpful, but less so than Audioforum. Do you know what is the most comprehensive audiocourse, since Audioforum is no longer around?
2. Long time ago I tried to study Portuguese, but then gave up on that. How easy it is to learn Portuguese, after learning Spanish, if you know?
This time I will limit it to only one question, since here each case may need to be explained individually. In English clauses introduced by when, if, until, after, etc. do not employ future tense, even if future is implied. What are the rules in Spanish about that? I know that at least in some of those instances the subjunctive is used, but there are some where the indicative is used.
Please rate when you are satisfied with my answer. My only goal is your satisfaction!Best regards,Cher
1. I see that the verb in the clause introduced by cuando is in present, even though both clauses in the sentence talk about future events. If I remember it right, in French both clauses will be in the future, since clauses introduced by QUAND require future tense, if future is intended. Does it mean that the ruledoes ot exist in Spanish?
2. Also I remember that in French, if the clause introduced by Apres que, future perfect is used, when future actions are described. Another thing about apres que is that it always requires a perfect form whatever time may be. I know that despues que uses the subjunctive, but does it also always require a perfect form?