Divorce proceedings have been applied for under French law
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Does this mean that the assets I spent on general living expenses are not taken into account at all despite the fact there was no contribution from him over the 5 years when we lived as man and wife in France even though his income was greater than mine. Would the situation before I moved to France when I he was contributing to a much higher standard of living than it is now be taken into account? Also it was my money which enabled him to live and continue his business in the UK which I was a partner in and have now lost the income from
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