I am sorry to hear this; I could not find any case law that would label non-intercourse behavior as adultery. The courts narrowly define adultery as intercourse between a married person and someone other than that person's spouse.
Fortunately the court may consider "misconduct" when dividing marital property meaning that even if a spouse does not commit adultery, if they are behaving with Misconduct, the innocent spouse can be awarded additional property so the division need not be 50/50. The idea is that the division needs to be fair, not necessarily equal; and the courts can take into account misconduct..
Please see statutes here:
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