Family Law Questions? Ask a Family Lawyer Online.
My name is ***** ***** I will be helping you today. Thank you for your question and for using justanswer.com. Give me a bit and I will get you an answer.
Yes it should unless there is a provision that defines any person specifically. It is hard to say without seeing the entire document but this language is normally reserved for significant others and when/if those parties get married, this provision is voided. The language could state any person although I would find it very difficult for the court to uphold a provision such as this as it would violate public policy. I would say the court would very likely find this provision to be void.
Please let me know if you have any further questions and please positively rate my answer if satisfied. There should be smiley faces or numbers from 1-5 to choose from. This extra step will cost you nothing extra and will be greatly appreciated. See link for how to rate: http://ww2.justanswer.com/help/how-do-i-rate-answer-hl
This language should include even a married couple but the court is likely to hold this as against public policy as a married couple lives together and the child should be able to be around the married couple. If your ex is agreeable this should not be a problem but it is likely that the court would not hold this provision against you and allow you and your husband to be around the child even if it is within the one year. Understand that this is not 100% but once you are married this marriage should be held invalid.
Just checking back in, was that the answer you were looking for? Please give me some feedback if not as I want to satisfy my customers. If you are satisfied, please rate my answer as this is the only way I will be compensated for my time by the site. See how to on the following link for how to do so: http://http://ww2.justanswer.com/help/how-do-i-rate-answer-hl
Thank you in advance.
Just checking back in, do you have any further questions?