Family Law Questions? Ask a Family Lawyer Online.
HelloThis is Samuel. Yes, the owners could have agreed verbally and it is legally enforceable. Unless the wife can show that he placed her under duress, threatening for her to sign, a verbal agreement is binding. Harder to prove by binding. So when you say "coerced" what would that be exactly?
Was the wife unwilling to make the verbal agreement? And what exactly was said that made her sign those property rights away?
Thank you. It sounds a little pushy, but not sure it would equate Duress under the law. If in short she did not have a gun to her head, then generally a court is going to decide the signing of the quit claim deed to the ex spouse is legitimate.