Hello and welcome to JustAnswer. Please note: This is general information for educational purposes only and is not legal advice. No specific course of action is proposed herein, and no attorney-client relationship or privilege is formed by speaking to an expert on this site. By continuing, you confirm that you understand and agree to these terms.
I am assuming you mean if you divorce.
If so, then someone in your situation can get the home back if you can show by clear evidence that the home was purchased with inherited money. Why? Because inherited money is separate property (not subject to division), and a home purchased with only separate property is also considered separate property under doctrine of transmutation.
However, there is an exception. If you put his name on the deed, then the home would be community property regardless. If so, then it wold be subject to division in a divorce.
If the money invested was money earned prior to marriage, then he can try to argue that this was his separate property via transmutation. However if the money he used was earned after marriage, or, was commingled with money earned after marriage, then likely it would be seen as community property and if so, you can demand half of the company's worth.
I hope this helps and clarifies. Please use the SEND or REPLY button to keep chatting, or please RATE when finished. You may always ask follow ups at no charge after rating. Kindly rate my answer as one of TOP THREE FACES/STARS and then SUBMIT, as this is how experts get credit for our time. Rating my answer the bottom two faces/stars (or failing to submit the rating) does not give me credit and reflects poorly on me, even if my answer is correct. I work very hard to formulate an informative and honest answer for you; please reciprocate my good faith with a positive rating.