How JustAnswer Works:
  • Ask an Expert
    Experts are full of valuable knowledge and are ready to help with any question. Credentials confirmed by a Fortune 500 verification firm.
  • Get a Professional Answer
    Via email, text message, or notification as you wait on our site.
    Ask follow up questions if you need to.
  • 100% Satisfaction Guarantee
    Rate the answer you receive.
Ask Lucy, Esq. Your Own Question
Lucy, Esq.
Lucy, Esq., Lawyer
Category: Family Law
Satisfied Customers: 27692
Experience:  Attorney with experience in family law.
26798026
Type Your Family Law Question Here...
Lucy, Esq. is online now
A new question is answered every 9 seconds

I lived with a woman years, not married. We had dual

Customer Question

I lived with a woman for 15 years, not married. We had dual accounts such as savings, bills, etc. We had an in ground pool in both of our names. I helped raise her two children, sharing all costs and bills for them and the homestead. Does this constitute common law marriage in the state of Texas? The home was in her name, I paid all the payments on the pool and half of the mortgage on the house. She recently sold the house and says I get nothing. Can she do that? I paid half of everything for 15 years!
Submitted: 6 months ago.
Category: Family Law
Expert:  Lucy, Esq. replied 6 months ago.

Hi,

I'm Lucy, and I'd be happy to answer your questions today. I'm sorry to hear about your situation.

There are three requirements for creating a common law marriage in Texas, which are set out in Tex. Fam. Code, Section 2.401.

  1. The parties make a promise to become spouses at that moment (not at some future date, like with an engagement).
  2. The parties live together as spouses after making that agreement, and
  3. The parties hold themselves out to the community as spouses.

Contrary to popular belief, two people cannot become common law married simply by living together for an extended period of time. The exchange of promises is key, because marriage is a contract that requires the consent of both spouses. If you believe you meet those three requirements, then you would have a claim to half the equity in the house - but only if you file for divorce. There's no such thing as common law divorce, so you'd have to file to dissolve your relationship. Courts won't get involved in financial disagreements between spouses while they are still married.

Without that agreement, I'm sorry to say that you do not have any legal claim to the property or the proceeds of the sale unless the two of you entered a contract at some point. All payments made toward the house in her name while you were living there (and all the other money spent on the relationship over the years) are treated as either gifts to her or as rent, which means there's no legal right to get any part of the money back.

If you have any questions or concerns about my response, please reply WITHOUT RATING. It's important that you are 100% satisfied with my courtesy and professionalism. Otherwise, please rate my service positively so I am paid for the time I spend answering questions. If you are on a mobile device, you may need to scroll to the right. There is no charge for follow-up questions. Thank you.

Expert:  Lucy, Esq. replied 6 months ago.

Did you have any other questions about this?