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I'm sorry to hear about your situation. It doesn't matter who "paid" for them but when. Property in a divorce is first separated into marital and separate property. Marital property is divided in an "equitable manner", whereas separate property belongs to the person who owns it.
Property is separate if one spouse owned it before marriage or acquired it during marriage as a gift (not including gifts from the other spouse) or by inheritance. Separate property also includes:
- assets and debts a couple defines as separate property in a valid written agreement (a premarital agreement, for example)
- income from separate property, unless the spouses have treated the income as marital property, by “commingling” it, for example (see below), and
- items exchanged for or purchased with separate property
Unless a couple has a valid written agreement stating otherwise, marital property in Florida includes all assets and debts either spouse acquires during the marriage. It doesn’t matter if the property or debt is titled jointly or is only in one spouse’s name.
So if the property was acquired prior to the marriage by him, that would be his separate property. Any property that you acquired prior to the marriage would be yours. But if it was during the marriage, it would be presumed to be marital property, and he would not be "entitled" to it any more than you would be "entitled" to it.
Hope that clears things up a bit. If you have any other questions, please let me know. If not, and you have not yet, please rate my answer AND press the "submit" button, if applicable. Please note that I don't get any credit for the time and effort that I spent on this answer unless and until you rate it positively (3 or more stars). Thank you, ***** ***** luck to you!