Dower rights are terminated upon divorce. That is, they're rights that are "active" upon the death of one of the spouses. You can find the law about this here: http://codes.ohio.gov/orc/2103. Essentially it means that one spouse has a right to 1/3 of the property upon the death of the other. But it's only upon the death of the other (which is why I asked that question, because it's frankly irrelevant in a divorce action).
Rather, marital property (property that is purchased during the marriage and/or with marital funds) would be subject to "just and equitable" distribution upon a divorce .This would include property that is purchased during the marriage but in the name of only one of the spouses. He could still stake a claim to the property that was purchased during the marriage unless she could successfully argue that it was separate property.
Separate property is property that is not marital property, but is instead owned separately by either spouse. It includes any real or personal property (or any interest in such property) that falls into these categories:
- an inheritance by one spouse by bequest, devise, or descent during the course of the marriage
- property that was acquired by one spouse prior to the date of the marriage
- passive income and appreciation acquired from separate property by one spouse during the marriage
- property acquired by one spouse after a decree of legal separation
- property that is excluded from the couple's marital property by a valid antenuptial agreement
- compensation to one spouse for that spouse's personal injury, except for loss of earnings during the marriage and compensation for expenses paid from marital assets, and
- any gift of property that is made after the date of the marriage and that is proven by clear and convincing evidence to have been given to only one spouse.
There's a lot more information about marital and separate property here: http://www.divorcenet.com/states/ohio/ohfaq04
Again, dower rights are not relevant in the current situation as neither party has died. But he does have certain rights by virtue of the property (likely) being marital property.
Hope that clears things up a bit. If you have any other questions, please let me know. If not, and you have not yet, please rate my answer AND press the "submit" button, if applicable. Please note that I don't get any credit for the time and effort that I spent on this answer unless and until you rate it positively (3 or more stars). Thank you, ***** ***** luck to you!