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Did he own the house in his name only prior to the marriage?
Is he using money earned during the marriage to pay the mortgage?
Ok, if the house is in his name, then it is his separate property and he can normally leave it to whoever he wanted to because he owned it prior to marriage. It only becomes community property if he added you to the deed.
However, if he is using money he earns now to pay for it, he is using community property (i.e. his wages) to pay for his separate asset. So you would be able to claim some percentage of interest in the house because he is using half your money to pay for it.