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I'm sorry to hear about your situation. There would not be, not for a lack of causes of action (that's another issue), but rather a procedural matter known as "compulsory joinder". A divorce is a lawsuit in and of itself. And in any lawsuit, the parties will need to "join" certain causes of action together that are related to each other and arise out of the same course of conduct / incident. For example, if someone ran into your car with theirs, causing damage to your car and injury to your body, you would sue only once to seek restitution for both the vehicle and injuries. You actually could not file two separate lawsuits, because it's the same defendant, the same actions and conduct that the cause of action arises out of, etc... So if you were to file a case just for damages to the car, and have a final disposition of that case, you could not then file an action for your injuries. That would be barred by "res judicata" (meaning that you should have brought that issue up in the first trial, as it was a claim that was required to have been joined with the first.
In the same sense, as you have a final disposition of the divorce, any claims relating to a breach of a marriage contract, etc... should have been brought up in the divorce action. If you actually did get divorced and the divorce is finalized, it would be too late to bring them up. His first and only argument could be that "it's too late", regardless of the merits of the claim. It's something that would have had to have been joined to the divorce action.
I know this is probably not what you wanted to hear, but it is the law. I hope that clears things up anyway. If you have any other questions, please let me know. If not, and you have not yet, please rate my answer AND press the "submit" button, if applicable. Please note that I don't get any credit for the time and effort that I spent on this answer unless and until you rate it positively (good or better). Thank you, ***** ***** luck to you!