Welcome! My name is Maverick. I very much enjoy what I do and I hope that you will benefit from this information.
It appears that you are saying that the house was titled in his name and that the mortgage on the house was only in his name as well. It further appears that you are saying that this purchase took place 2 years before your marriage
and that now he is trying to get you to pay part of the mortgage payments.
1. If he signed something to the effect that he would be solely responsible for the house, then the court will typically hold him to your bargained for property settlement
agreement; even if the divorce decree is not yet signed off on by the court.
2. If if the court does not sign off, he still does not have a leg to stand on since the note and title to the house were in his name before marriage and are considered his separate property and separate debt.
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If, for some reason, you are not satisfied with the answer, I would appreciate knowing why so that I can try to clear up any misunderstanding that may have taken place and still earn a positive rating from you. If you would rather obtain a refund of your deposit, just let me know and I will inform JA on your behalf. Finally, you may request me in the future by beginning the question with "THIS IS FOR MAVERICK".
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