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Yes, it was purchased by them both in 2008. They were married in 2005. Both of their names appear on the records as owners.
She claims that he signed away his rights to proceeds from the house in a separation agreement. But his name is XXXXX XXXXX the house, and he has to sign in order to sell it. How can she claim that he signed away his rights when he did not sign a quit claim?
He has used a lawyer who simply tells him that he should move on and just sign the papers to sell the house. Could this lawyer just be lazy, or not know the law? Should he get a "second opinion" from another lawyer? Is there anything in a legal separation that would allow her to take away his rights to the house with his name still on it as owner?