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I'm from INdiana,s so I checked the law, saying "
Being an all property state, marital property is property owned or acquired by either spouse before or during the marriage or assets acquired by their joint efforts. The spouses must have executed a valid pre-nuptial agreement prior to their marriage in order to keep property separate. More often than not, a Court deviates from the 50/50 presumption in order to give a spouse his or her separate property”
seems before the marriage counts too，，，
THanks for the following up!!! I don't really understand the law-tone english very well...
so the sentence "In an action for dissolution of marriage under IC 31-15-2-2, the court shall divide the property of the parties, whether:"
means.... the court will decide whether it's before the marriage, if it's before the marrige, it should still be mine?
From what i can understsand from these law codes, are that, the court will consider that since the property was bought by my parents and before marriage, the court should not divide it to my husband, sounds like a 90% chance thing...
but there is no law say very explicitly that , it's a defintely 100% sure...
Again, thanks for the follow up!!!
THanks a lot for the help!!!!
ONe last question.... My parents did transfer the title of another (a 3rd one ) house to me during our marriage , in china too... How much is the chance that my husband can have it?．．．．
Thanks a looooootttttt!
THanks a lot for the help tonight!!!!!!!! you have a great weekend!!!
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