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HiThe wife is entitled to No less than 4300 regardless of how it is paid.The point you are trying to make is not accurate because it reads these funds "MAY" be used to pay the amount due to the wife.It appears from what I am reading, the $2500 was in addition to the $4300 which it is clear the wife shall recieve no less. In your statement it says "the wife SHALL receive no less than..."
The operative word is "shall" Meaning must
The word "May" meaning an option. There is no option that the wife "SHALL" recieve NO less than the $4300.Please note that if you need more information, you can use the Reply to Expert to Continue the Conversation. Otherwise, I would appreciate positive ratings so that I get credit for my time and information. This will NOT close your question. It will remain active for future follow ups.If you cannot see where to Rate me, please let me know so I can report it to the administrators of the site.Thank you
It read the wife shall receive "no less" than $4300 from the sale of the home. This was a point designated for if the home is sold.
However, the wife wanted the husbands business account valued. Court ordered he give $6000 to do this. He didnt have the money, so my mother fronted the money. If the house was foreclosed on, the $4300 would come from this 6000 that was being held by her attorney.
6000 was given in a trust to the attorney. $2500 paid as retainer. Then it was decided not to perform valuation. (This was decided by the wife). She was supposed to get this money back from accountant.
Doesnt say that wife shall get no less if house is foreclosed on.
And I agree, she gets the $4300. If she gets a refund from the accountant, its hers.
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