Hi, I'm trained and experienced in family law, and I would love to help you through your current situation.
If the antenuptial agreement is not followed, the result will depend on what the ante-nuptial says.
In other words, it might mean the divorce is no longer valid if that's what the ante-nuptial says.
Ordinarily, it would mean that one of the parties will recover certain property.
Does that make sense?
If so, please clarify what the term is and what the result is under the agreement.
Can you see what I wrote?
Please don't rate me so prematurely.
I need some follow up information/clarification so that I can answer exactly what you're asking.
I can help you with this.
I just need to some clarification first.
What exactly happened, and what exactly do you want to know?
Take it one thing at a time please.
Since it seems you tried to respond and could not, I will switch to Q & A format; you can respond there.
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