I am sorry, I do not understand your question.
Could you reframe your question?
"How do you think that every partner could have one property"
Thank you for the clarification.
the husband and wife sign a anteprenuptial where the wife with no knowledge waive all her rights in case of a divorce .the husband has nonmarital property and he was requesting all the interes to be his in case of divorce and even if the wife contribute to those. In the same time the husband buy a different property with some money from the nonmarital assets,and in the title of the house the wife do not appear, later on they buy another property and the wife is in that one. How do you think that every partner could have one property
do you think that the first property is non-marital or marital propery
Response: The first property is a non-marital assets since it was bought with non-marital assets. However, it could be partly non-marital property and partly marital property, if the wife made some contributions to the maintenance of the property and/or increase in the value of the property. The wife would then be entitled to her share of the increase in value in the property or to her contribution to the maintenance of the property.
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