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Cataract surgery usually does not involve the optic nerve or any eye structures behind the lens. It would be very unlikely that a vein or artery occlusion (stroke of the eye) was caused by the surgery.
This would be especially true if the "no shot" technique of ocular anesthesia was used, as is the common practice in cataract surgery today.
Does this make sense to you?
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Do I understand correctly that if a shot technique of ocular anesthesia was used, the eye could have suffered some kind of trauma or possibly have caused the eye stroke?
The hospital report states that garamycin and celestone were injected into subconjunctival; therefore, the shot technique was used during surgery. Therefore, is it safe to conclude that the optic nerve received trauma?