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My husband and I were divorced in the Netherlands in 2007. We owned a house together and various other assets/debts. The court ordered him to hand over all documents pertaining to finances but he refused. After 3 years, the court stated that the case was being handed over to notaries to investigate, divide and settle the finances. I've now received a notice from my ex that he wants to sell the house and he needs my consent because I'm still listed as co-owner! He has run up debt against the house and once sold, there will be a 86K Euro's shortfall. He says I have to pay half of this. Two issues, why did the court and notaries not force that this gets settled? Since then, housing values have dropped since 2007 when this should have been closed. Can the court not do something to ensure I'm not liable because he did not comply? Secondly - I live in Canada, he still lives in the Netherlands. Will the morgage holder try and recoup the difference from him? Or will they go after us both? What if he takes off? Will/can they come after me in Canada for the full amount?
One more thing- what about repossession? If we let the bank reposess, than what happens to the remaining shortfall?
No one has responded yet, so don't close the question. I have made the deposit for some assistance and hope it will be responded to soon.
Hello. I don't understand why I've been asked 2x to close the question? A lawyer has not yet responded and I have paid for the service. If no lawyer is willing to respond, do you refund the payment? I really would like to have my question answered though.
What should I do to get an expert to respond?
Thank you Wendy. Could you please arrange to have the deposit returned for now? If I have another question, I will just pay it again then.
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