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Hi, please let me know how I being a food traider, can legaly request or demand ect. a supplier of a product to grant me sole rights for sales of the product in a specific country they as of now have never had sales in the past? The manufacturer claims they can't legaly commit - Why is that, is it true?
Optional Information: Country relating to Question: Ireland Already Tried: I have pleasanly asked once for sole rights of sales in a specific country and was turned down - they can't make a legal commitment
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Hello, I am pleased to answer your question.
You questions are
1) please let me know how I being a food trader, can legaly request or demand ect. a supplier of a product to grant me sole rights for sales of the product in a specific country they as of now have never had sales in the past?
You can legally request a supplier of a product to grant you sole rights for sales of his/her product in a specific country by just asking the question in a registered letter to the supplier or you can get a lawyer to send a letter to the supplier.
However, the supplier is free to d what he/wants or may already have an exclusive contract with another food trader. The European Union is a democracy which means that no company (or person) can be forced to sign a contract and grant a party sole rights for sales of their products in a specific country. You would need to negotiate and obtain their consent.
2) The manufacturer claims they can't legaly commit - Why is that, ?
There could be several possible reasons. I have not a clue why this is because I do not have enough information. I would be second guessing; I do not want to second guess. Maybe they already have a contract that grants another party sole rights for sales of their products in that specific country. Maybe the suppliers does not have that right.
3) is it true?
Yes, this could be true as it could be false. I have no clue because I do not have enough information about the case and the suppliers. I would be second guessing
Experience: French lawyer, European law lawyer, 10+ years experience
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Many thanks
Good luck
Hello. I do not know why this is so. You may want to contact a moderator.
1) please let me know how I being a food trader, can legally request or demand ect. a supplier of a product to grant me sole rights for sales of the product in a specific country they as of now have never had sales in the past?
You can legally request a supplier of a product to grant you sole rights for sales of his/her product in a specific country by just asking (the question) in a registered letter to the supplier or you can get a lawyer to send a letter to the supplier.
However, the supplier is free to do what he/she wants, or the supplier may already have an exclusive contract with another food trader. The European Union is a democracy which means that no company (or person) can be forced to sign a contract with a party or grant a party sole rights for sales of their products in a specific country. You would therefore need to negotiate and try to obtain their consent.
There could be several possible reasons. I have not a clue why this is because I do not have enough information the product, the suppliers, and the case. I would be second guessing; I do not want to second guess. Also some people use the word "legally" when they actually mean to say "contractually". Legal normally means by law. There are laws that prevent some rights from being transfered. Maybe they already have a contract that grants another party sole rights for sales of their products in that specific country. Maybe the suppliers do not have the right (both legally and contractually) to grant another party sole rights for sales of the products or in that specific country. Maybe the product is illegal in another country, maybe there is a court order blocking the transfer or a law, etc...
Yes, this could be true just as it could also be false. I have no clue if it is true or not because I do not have enough information about the product, the suppliers or the case and the suppliers. I would be second guessing.