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No, that's not what I'm saying. What I'm saying is that the statute that makes it illegal for a business to discriminate against a patron is different from the statute that makes it illegal for a business to discriminate against its own employees in that only the latter requires the claimant to first file a complaint with the EEOC.
Yes, it would qualify. That is precisely what I'm talking about.
If there is anything else I can do for you please let me know....