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Thank you for the information. Can you please tell me if you are saying that you think that your husband's pay was reduced because of his national origin or race? Is he the only one in the workplace who is a native Spanish speaker? If not, did the other native Spanish speakers have their pay reduced? Finally, is he in a union?
Thank you for your reply, but I don't see where you responded about whether the other Spanish speakers were having their pay reduced. If not, there would be no real evidence to allege national origin discrimination in his pay reduction. In other words, although he can certainly file a discrimination complaint with his employer's HR Department (which would be the required first step for him) and then if they did not resolve the issue he could file a complaint with the State Human Rights Commission or the EEOC, there would have to be evidence that the company targeted him because of his national origin. Without an outright statement to him that showed bias or a habit of treating Spanish speaking employees worse than native English speakers, there wouldn't be any substantiation of this claim. The fact that he has never been disciplined or marked down in any evals is not enough to sustain and discrimination complaint if no other Spanish speakers are treated adversely.
So, again, he can file his complaints, but that evidence I mentioned will have to be there.
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