Hi, Holly, thanks for submitting your question today. My name is XXXXX XXXXX I’m happy to assist you with your question today.
Under the Fair Labor Standards Act
), which is the law that controls the salary (exempt) versus hourly (non-exempt) standards for employment, a salaried employee is not owed salary for any complete workweek in which he/she does no work for a reason not attributable to the employer. So if a salaried worker and employer agreed to simply allow the employee not to work one workweek, and the reason wasn't attributable to the employer (for example the plant wasn't shut down, or the employer just didn't have any work), then there would be no wage
owed to the employee for that week. This must be in entire workweek segments though; even if the salaried employee provides only an hour of labor
during a workweek, then the entire workweek is compensable.
In your case, you state your vacation is 2 weeks and 3 days. It will depend on how this vacation overlaps with the workweeks, but there must be at least one full workweek wherein you'd not be legally entitled to your salary; it could be two weeks. Thus, unless the employer gives you vacation pay for this time or just pays the time off regardless of the law, then you'd not be paid for it.
I believe this answers your question. However, if you need clarification or have follow-up questions regarding this matter, I will be happy to continue our conversation – simply reply to this answer. If you are otherwise satisfied with my response, please leave a positive rating as it is the only way I am able to get credit for my answers. Thank you, XXXXX XXXXX wish you all the best with this matter.